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Are probes other than TaqMan® probes, such as FRET probes, compatible with fast cycling with the Rotor-Gene Multiplex PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2130
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Are primers available that only detect mitochondrial DNA encoded genes and not nuclear genomic DNA encoded genes?
FAQ ID -2680
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Are plant miScript Primer Assay designs wet-bench validated?
FAQ ID - 3440
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Are peak heights of Q48 comparable to other PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID - 3692
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Are PAXgene Tissue Containers suitable for long term-storage at freezing temperatures?
FAQ ID -3030
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Are PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) sterile?
FAQ ID - 3373
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Are PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes sterile?
FAQ ID - 3636
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Are panels and bin sets available for use with GeneMapper ID and GeneMapper ID-X?
FAQ ID - 3267
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Are panels and bin sets available for use with GeneMapper ID and GeneMapper ID-X?
FAQ ID -2398
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Are Northern Blots sensitive enough to detect siRNA-induced gene silencing?
FAQ ID -403
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Are miScript primer assays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -3145
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Are miScript Primer Assays available for plant mature miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3439
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Are miScript Primer Assay included in miScript miRNA PCR Arrays the same primers as the miScript Primer Assays available in individual tubes?
FAQ ID - 3441
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Are MaXtract tubes siliconized?
FAQ ID -1298
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Are immunohistochemistry (IHC) assays developed for formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissues compatible with PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissues?
FAQ ID - 3609
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Are immunohistochemistry (IHC) assays developed for formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) compatible with PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3040
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Are HEPES, MOPS and PIPES buffers compatible with QIAGEN's PhosphoProtein Purification kit?
FAQ ID -482
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Are FlexiTube siRNA and FlexiTube GeneSolution also available for rat siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1664
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Are FlexiPlate siRNAs available at a higher final concentration than 10 µM?
FAQ ID -1476
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Are EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays applicable to FFPE samples?
FAQ ID -2733
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Are EasyXtal 15-Well Tools stackable?
FAQ ID -1116
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Are Centromeres and Telomeres amplified using REPLI-g WGA?
FAQ ID -702
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Are Buffer PB of the QIAquick PCR Purification Kit and Buffer QG of the QIAquick Gel Extraction Kit interchangeable?
FAQ ID -786
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Are BioMag particles stable in other solvents?
FAQ ID -267
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Are artus® kits legally authorized?
FAQ ID -1372
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Are any of the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit components interchangeable with miScript II RT Kit, miScript Plant RT Kit, miScript PreAMP PCR Kit, or miScript Microfluidics PreAMP Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3569
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Are any of the miScript II RT Kit components interchangeable with the miScript Plant RT Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3436
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Are any components of the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit interchangeable with components from other QIAGEN kits?
FAQ ID - 3662
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Are all 3 components of the SeqTarget System required or can a different Long Range PCR Kit and primers be used?
FAQ ID -2234
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Apart from the antibody itself, does the Penta-His Biotin Conjugate solution contain any protein?
FAQ ID -359
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Any data on the fidelity of the REPLI-g MDA technique?
FAQ ID -707
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After using your U/A PCR Cloning Kit I can detect colonies, which are light blue, and not really white. Why is that?
FAQ ID -512
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After bisulfite conversion, can the DNA be stored?
FAQ ID -2409
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A white precipitate has formed in my 10x RT buffer. Is it still ok to use?
FAQ ID -216
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895 - Do you have a protocol for the isolation of endotoxin-free plasmid DNA using the QIAGEN Plasmid Midi Kit?
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5. What is the maximum size of the tissue sample that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -3023
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3497 - What is the expected purity and size of DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3497
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3354 - What type and amount of resin is packed into the Ni-NTA Spin columns from the Ni-NTA Spin Kit?
FAQ ID - 3354
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3353 - What is the composition of the elution buffer in the Ni-NTA Fast Start Kit?
FAQ ID - 3353
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3352 - What are the size ranges of Ni-NTA particles?
FAQ ID - 3352
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3351 - What is the upper limit for protein size that can bind to Ni-NTA agarose resin?
FAQ ID - 3351
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3345 - What is the difference between the high and low concentration EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion protocol?
FAQ - 3345
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3344 - What is the difference between the EpiTect Plus DNA Bisulfite kit compared to the classic kit?
FAQ - 3344
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3343 - Why is it difficult to quantify DNA using UV/Vis spectroscopy and fluorescence methods following EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion? How best do you quantify it?
FAQ - 3343
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3342 - How is the unmethylated unconverted EpiTect DNA control to be used?
FAQ - 3342
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3341 - How are the EpiTect DNA controls produced and tested?
FAQ - 3341
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3340 - Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
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3339 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) negatively impact subsequent NGS sequencing?
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3338 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) have 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate groups?
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3337 - Which method is used for QIAGEN sequencing service?
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3336 - Can I use the linearized DNA for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit?
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3335 - Can I use the DNA directly from enzymatic reaction for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit (cat. no. 59104)?
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3333 - When using REPLI-g, what is the purpose of the DTT added to the denaturation buffer in the cells/blood protocol?
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3332 - Is there a method that can distinguish between non-amplified DNA and REPLI-g amplified DNA?
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3331 - Should the REPLI-g amplified mtDNA be cleaned up before sequencing?
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3330 - Is there any contamination from E. coli genomic DNA in the polymerase provided with the Repli-G Single Cell Kit?
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3329 - When using REPLI-g, if the starting material is a single sorted cell, could mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) be amplified?
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3328 - Can the Sample Tubes CB and the Sample Tubes RB be used interchangeably?
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3327 - How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip-adapter be changed on the QIAcube?
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3326 - Which QIAcube standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
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3325 - What are the catalog numbers for the packing materials for the QIAcube?
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3324 - Do you have a protocol for the QIAprep Spin M13 Kit on the QIAcube?
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3323 - Do you have a protocol for the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID - 3323
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3322 - What is the concentration of the reconstituted miScript Primer Assay (100) and miScript Precursor Assay (100) tubes?
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3321 - What is the purpose of the C. elegans miR-39 spike-in control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
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3320 - What is the sensitivity of the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
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3318 - What is the preferred amplicon size for performing PCR on DNA amplified with the EpiTect Whole Bisulfitome Kit?
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3318 - What guidelines should I follow in designing primers for use with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
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3317 - Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from cell cultures using the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit?
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3316-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiFast Probe Assay?
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3315-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiTect Primer Assay (200)?
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3314-What is the concentration of RNase A sold separately?
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3313 - What is the endotoxin level for the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
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3312 - For DirectPrep 96 miniprep, is it possible to use a half plate and save the other half for later prep?
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3311 - Can QuickLyse miniprep kits be used with QIAVac 24 Plus?
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3310 - Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3309 - Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3308 - Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3306 - What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3305 - What is the minimal amount of starting material required for using the SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
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3304 - What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3302 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
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3301 - Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
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3300 - Can isopropanol or methanol be used in place of ethanol in RNeasy kits?
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3299-Can Buffer ER from the Endofree Plasmid kits be used instead of the Buffer ETR in QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
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3298-Will the sequence of the QuantiFast Probe Assays be provided?
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3297-Why does the PCR for HLA-DRB4 result in 2 amplicons of different size?
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3296-Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
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3295-What is the difference between SBTexcellerator HLA Core, Extended and Full Kits?
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3294-How long can I store my purified DNA/RNA isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit?
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3292-How do I start using the NeXtal CubicPhase kits?
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3291-How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
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3290-How do I analyze the data for the particular iPSC qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
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3289-How does the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination?
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3288-How does the gDNA eliminator solution of the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit work?
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3286-How can I adjust the ROX concentration in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus master mix?
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3285-How are the genes in each iPSC qBiomarker PCR Array selected?
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3284-For which applications can the RNA isolated with the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit also be used?
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3283-Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
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3277 - Can I use the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit for all types of tissue?
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3275 - Can I use more than 10ng DNA for the PCR reaction for my therascreen Pyro Kits?
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3274 - Can I do singleplex PCR with the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
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3273 - At what temperature can I perform the experiment with the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
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3272 - Are the QuantiFast Probe Assays wet-lab validated?
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3270 - Are the primer sets different for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit and ESSplex SE where the loci are the same?
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3266 - Why are two different exon 2 forward sequencing primers used for the SBTexcellerator HLA-DRB1 Kit?
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3265 - Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
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3264 - Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
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3263 - Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit?
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3262 - Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
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3261 - Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
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3260 - Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
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3259 - Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
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3258 - Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
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3257 - Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
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3256 - Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
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3255 - When using the NexTal Cubic Phase products, should I work with diluted or undiluted screens?
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3254 - When using the Nextal Cubic Phase products how do I know in which phase the sample is? What will I see?
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3253 - What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
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3252 - What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
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3249 - What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
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3248 - What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase?
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3247 - What is the correct matrix to use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
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3246 - What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3245 - What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
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3244 -What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
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3243 - What does the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit contain?
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3241 - What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
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3240 - What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
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3239 - What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
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3238 - What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
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3237 - I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible?
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3236 - I use cultured cells as starting material. Can I also use the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit?
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3233 - Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods.
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3232 - Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues?
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3231 - Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
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3229 - Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers?
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3228 - Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
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3227 - In which solution can I keep my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
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3226 - How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit be?
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3225 - How pure should my protein be for the NexTal CubicPhase kits?
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3224 - How much time can be saved when using the RNeasy Mini QIAcube Kit?
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3223 - How much sample material can I use for DNA/RNA purification with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
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3222 - How much DNA/RNA can be isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
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3220 - How many PCR cycles should I use for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
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3219 - How many freeze-thaw cycles can the master mix contained in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit tolerate?
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3218 - How many fragments are contained within the size standard BTO in the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
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3217 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
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3215 - What is the starting material for SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
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3213 - How much ethanol should be added to Buffer AP3/E (renamed to Buffer AW1) and Buffer AW (renamed to Buffer AW2) in the DNeasy Plant kit?
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3212 - What is the minimum size of DNA fragment that can be isolated with QIAamp DNA Mini kit?
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3211 - What is the maximum speed of the plate rotor 2 x 96 in the 4-16 or 4-16K?
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3210 - Can the 4-16K Centrifuge be used with a 208 V outlet?
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3206 - Can our GeneRead Library preparation kits be used with the SoLiD Platform?
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3205 - Can GeneRead Library preparation kits be used on species other than human mouse and rat, for example, plant species and microbial species?
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3204 - How strict is the purification cut-off with GeneRead Size Selection kit?
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3203 - Is the RNeasy MinElute cleanup kit required for the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
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3202 - Can GeneRead rRNA depletion kit be used to deplete rRNA from miRNA isolated using miRNeasy kit?
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3201 - What quality of RNA can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
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3200 - What is the Maximum/Minimum amount of RNA that can be used with GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
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3199 - Which species can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
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3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit?
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3197 -Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator HDplex kit?
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3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware?
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3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
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3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
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3193 - Where can I get an RNase-free syringe that is recommended for reconstituting QIAGEN's RNase-free DNase (cat. no. 79254)?
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3192 - Is QIAGEN Protease compatible with Buffer ATL?
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3191 - Is the Allprep DNA Mini Spin Column the same as the gDNA eliminator column? Can I interchange these columns?
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3190 - What is the smallest elution volume for RNeasy Mini Spin column?
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3188 - How many His residues are required for successful purification on Ni-NTA resins?
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3187 - Why does the Ni-NTA resin turn reddish-brown after mixing with the lysates?
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303 - Can I use my own lysis buffer with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
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2. Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes CE (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)?
FAQ ID - 3485
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