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Why is the qRT-PCR reproducibility so critical when detecting gene expression knock down in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2774
What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
Can miScript miRNA qPCR Assays be used for pre-miRNA detection?
FAQ ID -2724
Can miScript miRNA qPCR Assays detect single nucleotide difference between miRNAs?
FAQ ID -2723
Do I need an internal methylated DNA reference in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array?
FAQ ID -2736
Do I need the sequence specific miRNA primers in the RT step of the miRNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2725
Do you always run samples in triplicates?
FAQ ID -2703
Can you use stained (H & E) sections with RT² PreAMP cDNA Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -2722
Does QIAGEN guarantee the performance of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2787
Does this method with the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array detect methylation at specific CpG dinucleotides?
FAQ ID -2737
Can I make stable cell lines with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2763
Is it acceptable to correct for transfection efficiency, when determining the level of gene expression knock down by an shRNA expression vector?
FAQ ID -2783
How are the primers in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array designed?
FAQ ID -2735
On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work?
FAQ ID -2719
Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays?
FAQ ID -2747
What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA?
FAQ ID -2786
The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions?
FAQ ID -2750
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2766
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2767
How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2742
How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells in the miScript miRNA PCR array?
FAQ ID -2729
How can RNA interference be used as a life science research tool?
FAQ ID -2756
How can I be sure that the restriction enzyme digestion is complete in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR system?
FAQ ID -2731
How can I identify the binding sites of my transcription factor using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2753
How can I normalize my EpiTect ChIP results?
FAQ ID -2751
What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
Can the EpiTect Methyl qPCR System technology reliably characterize heterogenous tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2732
Can users insert custom transcriptional regulatory elements or promoters into the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2765
Can you custom design the Epitect qPCR primers for the CpG island outside of the defined promoter region?
FAQ ID -2744
Can I manually set the threshold line?
FAQ ID -2702
Can I use your EpiTect One-Day kit with transcription factors?
FAQ ID -2752
Are EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays applicable to FFPE samples?
FAQ ID -2733
Can I obtain the sequence of the RT² qPCR Primer Assay that I purchased?
FAQ ID -2709
Are there any unique elements that need to be incorporated into an shRNA expression vector?
FAQ ID -2772
Can I use total RNA for the miRNA PCR Arrays or Assays?
FAQ ID -2726
At what point can I stop and freeze my samples when using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2754
Can I use the default PCR program to run EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays?
FAQ ID -2745
Can I use your EpiTect ChIP system in a RNA study?
FAQ ID -2748
Can I transform the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2762
Can I reliably detect intermediately methylated DNA with EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array technology?
FAQ ID -2738
How many experiments can I do with the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2769
How many housekeeping genes are included in each PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2704
Can I use fluorescence microscopy to assess shRNA plasmid transfection efficiency in my model cell line of interest, when using a vector expressing a GFP reporter gene?
FAQ ID -2782
What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?
FAQ ID -2721
How reliable are the results from the miScript Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2730
What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2720
How do you determine the efficiency using the PCR array?
FAQ ID -2701
How do I choose EpiTect ChIP-grade antibodies?
FAQ ID -2746
How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR?
FAQ ID -2749
How does QIAGEN control the quality of the RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2711
How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work?
FAQ ID -2779
How do I choose between the DNA-based Cignal Reporter Assays and the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2761
What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?
FAQ ID — 3394
Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
3326 - Which QIAcube standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
3327 - How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip-adapter be changed on the QIAcube?
3328 - Can the Sample Tubes CB and the Sample Tubes RB be used interchangeably?
3329 - When using REPLI-g, if the starting material is a single sorted cell, could mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) be amplified?
3330 - Is there any contamination from E. coli genomic DNA in the polymerase provided with the Repli-G Single Cell Kit?
3331 - Should the REPLI-g amplified mtDNA be cleaned up before sequencing?
3332 - Is there a method that can distinguish between non-amplified DNA and REPLI-g amplified DNA?
3333 - When using REPLI-g, what is the purpose of the DTT added to the denaturation buffer in the cells/blood protocol?
What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
Can I use the Microbial DNA-Free Water and Microbial qPCR Mastermix if they have been opened more than 3 times?
FAQ ID — 3398
What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3393
What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?

FAQ ID - 3365

What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
3352 - What are the size ranges of Ni-NTA particles?
FAQ ID - 3352
3353 - What is the composition of the elution buffer in the Ni-NTA Fast Start Kit?
FAQ ID - 3353
3351 - What is the upper limit for protein size that can bind to Ni-NTA agarose resin?
FAQ ID - 3351
3354 - What type and amount of resin is packed into the Ni-NTA Spin columns from the Ni-NTA Spin Kit?
FAQ ID - 3354
3341 - How are the EpiTect DNA controls produced and tested?
FAQ - 3341
3344 - What is the difference between the EpiTect Plus DNA Bisulfite kit compared to the classic kit?
FAQ - 3344
3345 - What is the difference between the high and low concentration EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion protocol?
FAQ - 3345
Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
3311 - Can QuickLyse miniprep kits be used with QIAVac 24 Plus?
3312 - For DirectPrep 96 miniprep, is it possible to use a half plate and save the other half for later prep?
3313 - What is the endotoxin level for the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
3314-What is the concentration of RNase A sold separately?
CAn I use milk or other liquids with the DNeasy mericon Food kit? What volume would I use?
FAQ ID - 3350
3316-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiFast Probe Assay?
Does salt concentration in the food matter when using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3346
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3349
Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K?
FAQ ID - 3362
What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
Are QIAcube reagent bottles (cat. no. 990393) autoclavable? What type of plastic are they made of?
FAQ ID - 3369
How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at 2–8°C?
FAQ ID - 3379
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3384
Can I buy the gDNA eliminator plates supplied in your RNeasy Plus 96 kit separately?
FAQ ID - 3389
What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
Can I buy the gDNA eliminator columns supplied in your RNeasy Plus kits separately?
FAQ ID - 3390
3323 - Do you have a protocol for the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID - 3323

 

3340 - Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
3325 - What are the catalog numbers for the packing materials for the QIAcube?
3324 - Do you have a protocol for the QIAprep Spin M13 Kit on the QIAcube?

 

3335 - Can I use the DNA directly from enzymatic reaction for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit (cat. no. 59104)?
3336 - Can I use the linearized DNA for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit?
3337 - Which method is used for QIAGEN sequencing service?
3339 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) negatively impact subsequent NGS sequencing?
3338 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) have 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate groups?
3342 - How is the unmethylated unconverted EpiTect DNA control to be used?
FAQ - 3342
3343 - Why is it difficult to quantify DNA using UV/Vis spectroscopy and fluorescence methods following EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion? How best do you quantify it?
FAQ - 3343
3315-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiTect Primer Assay (200)?
3322 - What is the concentration of the reconstituted miScript Primer Assay (100) and miScript Precursor Assay (100) tubes?
3317 - Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from cell cultures using the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit?
3318 - What guidelines should I follow in designing primers for use with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
3320 - What is the sensitivity of the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
3318 - What is the preferred amplicon size for performing PCR on DNA amplified with the EpiTect Whole Bisulfitome Kit?
3321 - What is the purpose of the C. elegans miR-39 spike-in control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
Can I buy the RNeasy Mini columns, RNeasy MinElute columns, RNeasy Midi columns or the RNeasy Maxi columns separately?
FAQ ID - 3388
Do you have data to show lowest dropout rate with Repli-G WTA Single Cells kit?
FAQ ID - 3392
3305 - What is the minimal amount of starting material required for using the SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
3306 - What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3304 - What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3310 - Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3308 - Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3309 - Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
3300 - Can isopropanol or methanol be used in place of ethanol in RNeasy kits?
3301 - Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do?
FAQ ID - 3363
3302 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
Do you sell CoralLoad dye separately?
FAQ ID - 3368
3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit?
3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware?
3188 - How many His residues are required for successful purification on Ni-NTA resins?
3190 - What is the smallest elution volume for RNeasy Mini Spin column?
Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood?
FAQ ID -3120
What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood?
FAQ ID -3119
What is the composition of elution buffer ATE in the QIAamp DNA Investigator kit, QIAamp DNA FFPE Tissue kit and the QIAamp Fast DNA Stool Mini kit?
FAQ ID -3122
Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use?
FAQ ID -3116
The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times?
FAQ ID -3124
Can Dithiothreitol (DTT) be used instead of BME in Buffer RLT Plus of RNeasy Plus Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -3125
Can I use the QIAGEN deparaffinization solution with the IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3100
Can I use stained slide materials with IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3101
Do you have a protocol for obtaining > 20 µg plasmid DNA using the QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3102
How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage?
FAQ ID -3103
How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3105
What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
Can we do modification XXXXX for custom siRNA that is not on the web page?
FAQ ID -3107
What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
Do you offer FlexiTube or FlexiPlate siRNAs for rat?
FAQ ID -3114
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?
FAQ ID -3160
Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?
FAQ ID -3161
Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?
FAQ ID -3162
Do you have data on the DNA yield at different incubation time for the Repli-G Kits?
FAQ ID -3113
How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade?
FAQ ID -3163
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry compared to PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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