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The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2766
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The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2767
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How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2742
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How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells in the miScript miRNA PCR array?
FAQ ID -2729
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How can RNA interference be used as a life science research tool?
FAQ ID -2756
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How can I be sure that the restriction enzyme digestion is complete in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR system?
FAQ ID -2731
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How can I identify the binding sites of my transcription factor using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2753
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How can I normalize my EpiTect ChIP results?
FAQ ID -2751
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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Can the EpiTect Methyl qPCR System technology reliably characterize heterogenous tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2732
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Can users insert custom transcriptional regulatory elements or promoters into the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2765
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Can you custom design the Epitect qPCR primers for the CpG island outside of the defined promoter region?
FAQ ID -2744
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Can I manually set the threshold line?
FAQ ID -2702
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Can I use your EpiTect One-Day kit with transcription factors?
FAQ ID -2752
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Are EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays applicable to FFPE samples?
FAQ ID -2733
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Can I obtain the sequence of the RT² qPCR Primer Assay that I purchased?
FAQ ID -2709
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Are there any unique elements that need to be incorporated into an shRNA expression vector?
FAQ ID -2772
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Can I use total RNA for the miRNA PCR Arrays or Assays?
FAQ ID -2726
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At what point can I stop and freeze my samples when using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2754
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Can I use the default PCR program to run EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays?
FAQ ID -2745
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Can I use your EpiTect ChIP system in a RNA study?
FAQ ID -2748
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Can I transform the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2762
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Can I reliably detect intermediately methylated DNA with EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array technology?
FAQ ID -2738
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How many experiments can I do with the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2769
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How many housekeeping genes are included in each PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2704
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Can I use fluorescence microscopy to assess shRNA plasmid transfection efficiency in my model cell line of interest, when using a vector expressing a GFP reporter gene?
FAQ ID -2782
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What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?
FAQ ID -2721
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How reliable are the results from the miScript Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2730
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What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2720
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How do you determine the efficiency using the PCR array?
FAQ ID -2701
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How do I choose EpiTect ChIP-grade antibodies?
FAQ ID -2746
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How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR?
FAQ ID -2749
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How does QIAGEN control the quality of the RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2711
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How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work?
FAQ ID -2779
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How do I choose between the DNA-based Cignal Reporter Assays and the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2761
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What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?
FAQ ID — 3394
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Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
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What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
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3326 - Which QIAcube standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
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3327 - How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip-adapter be changed on the QIAcube?
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3328 - Can the Sample Tubes CB and the Sample Tubes RB be used interchangeably?
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3329 - When using REPLI-g, if the starting material is a single sorted cell, could mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) be amplified?
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3330 - Is there any contamination from E. coli genomic DNA in the polymerase provided with the Repli-G Single Cell Kit?
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3331 - Should the REPLI-g amplified mtDNA be cleaned up before sequencing?
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3332 - Is there a method that can distinguish between non-amplified DNA and REPLI-g amplified DNA?
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3333 - When using REPLI-g, what is the purpose of the DTT added to the denaturation buffer in the cells/blood protocol?
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What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
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What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
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Can I use the Microbial DNA-Free Water and Microbial qPCR Mastermix if they have been opened more than 3 times?
FAQ ID — 3398
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What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3393
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
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3352 - What are the size ranges of Ni-NTA particles?
FAQ ID - 3352
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3353 - What is the composition of the elution buffer in the Ni-NTA Fast Start Kit?
FAQ ID - 3353
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3351 - What is the upper limit for protein size that can bind to Ni-NTA agarose resin?
FAQ ID - 3351
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3354 - What type and amount of resin is packed into the Ni-NTA Spin columns from the Ni-NTA Spin Kit?
FAQ ID - 3354
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3341 - How are the EpiTect DNA controls produced and tested?
FAQ - 3341
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3344 - What is the difference between the EpiTect Plus DNA Bisulfite kit compared to the classic kit?
FAQ - 3344
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3345 - What is the difference between the high and low concentration EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion protocol?
FAQ - 3345
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Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
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3311 - Can QuickLyse miniprep kits be used with QIAVac 24 Plus?
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3312 - For DirectPrep 96 miniprep, is it possible to use a half plate and save the other half for later prep?
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3313 - What is the endotoxin level for the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
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3314-What is the concentration of RNase A sold separately?
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CAn I use milk or other liquids with the DNeasy mericon Food kit? What volume would I use?
FAQ ID - 3350
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3316-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiFast Probe Assay?
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Does salt concentration in the food matter when using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3346
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Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
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When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
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Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3349
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Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K?
FAQ ID - 3362
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What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
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Are QIAcube reagent bottles (cat. no. 990393) autoclavable? What type of plastic are they made of?
FAQ ID - 3369
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Can I buy the gDNA eliminator plates supplied in your RNeasy Plus 96 kit separately?
FAQ ID - 3389
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What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
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Can I buy the gDNA eliminator columns supplied in your RNeasy Plus kits separately?
FAQ ID - 3390
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3323 - Do you have a protocol for the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID - 3323
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3340 - Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
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3325 - What are the catalog numbers for the packing materials for the QIAcube?
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3324 - Do you have a protocol for the QIAprep Spin M13 Kit on the QIAcube?
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3335 - Can I use the DNA directly from enzymatic reaction for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit (cat. no. 59104)?
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3336 - Can I use the linearized DNA for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit?
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3337 - Which method is used for QIAGEN sequencing service?
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3339 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) negatively impact subsequent NGS sequencing?
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3338 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) have 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate groups?
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3342 - How is the unmethylated unconverted EpiTect DNA control to be used?
FAQ - 3342
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3343 - Why is it difficult to quantify DNA using UV/Vis spectroscopy and fluorescence methods following EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion? How best do you quantify it?
FAQ - 3343
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3315-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiTect Primer Assay (200)?
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3322 - What is the concentration of the reconstituted miScript Primer Assay (100) and miScript Precursor Assay (100) tubes?
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3317 - Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from cell cultures using the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit?
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3318 - What guidelines should I follow in designing primers for use with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
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3320 - What is the sensitivity of the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
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3318 - What is the preferred amplicon size for performing PCR on DNA amplified with the EpiTect Whole Bisulfitome Kit?
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3321 - What is the purpose of the C. elegans miR-39 spike-in control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
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Can I buy the RNeasy Mini columns, RNeasy MinElute columns, RNeasy Midi columns or the RNeasy Maxi columns separately?
FAQ ID - 3388
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Do you have data to show lowest dropout rate with Repli-G WTA Single Cells kit?
FAQ ID - 3392
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3305 - What is the minimal amount of starting material required for using the SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
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3306 - What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3304 - What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3310 - Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3308 - Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3309 - Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
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What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
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3300 - Can isopropanol or methanol be used in place of ethanol in RNeasy kits?
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3301 - Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
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I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do?
FAQ ID - 3363
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3302 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
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Do you sell CoralLoad dye separately?
FAQ ID - 3368
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3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit?
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3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
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3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
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3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware?
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3188 - How many His residues are required for successful purification on Ni-NTA resins?
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3190 - What is the smallest elution volume for RNeasy Mini Spin column?
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Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood?
FAQ ID -3120
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What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
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Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood?
FAQ ID -3119
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What is the composition of elution buffer ATE in the QIAamp DNA Investigator kit, QIAamp DNA FFPE Tissue kit and the QIAamp Fast DNA Stool Mini kit?
FAQ ID -3122
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Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
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I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use?
FAQ ID -3116
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The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
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Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
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Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times?
FAQ ID -3124
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Can Dithiothreitol (DTT) be used instead of BME in Buffer RLT Plus of RNeasy Plus Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -3125
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Can I use the QIAGEN deparaffinization solution with the IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3100
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Can I use stained slide materials with IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3101
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Do you have a protocol for obtaining > 20 µg plasmid DNA using the QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3102
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How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage?
FAQ ID -3103
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How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3105
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What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
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Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
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What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
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Can we do modification XXXXX for custom siRNA that is not on the web page?
FAQ ID -3107
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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
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Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
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What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
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Do you offer FlexiTube or FlexiPlate siRNAs for rat?
FAQ ID -3114
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What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
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What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
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What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
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What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
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Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?
FAQ ID -3160
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Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?
FAQ ID -3161
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Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?
FAQ ID -3162
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Do you have data on the DNA yield at different incubation time for the Repli-G Kits?
FAQ ID -3113
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How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade?
FAQ ID -3163
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Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
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What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry compared to PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
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What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
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What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
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What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
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What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
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Does QIAGEN provide template files for GeneMapper® 5 software?
FAQ ID -3177
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Can the Rotor-Gene Q perform gradient PCR?
FAQ ID -3183
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Can Rotor-Gene Reports be modified?
FAQ ID -3184
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What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
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What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
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What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
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Aside from the OTV test, what other maintenance should be done for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3181
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3187 - Why does the Ni-NTA resin turn reddish-brown after mixing with the lysates?
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Are the miRNA Target Protector & miRNA mimic bench tested? Any guarantee?
FAQ ID - 3186
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3191 - Is the Allprep DNA Mini Spin Column the same as the gDNA eliminator column? Can I interchange these columns?
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3192 - Is QIAGEN Protease compatible with Buffer ATL?
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3199 - Which species can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
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3193 - Where can I get an RNase-free syringe that is recommended for reconstituting QIAGEN's RNase-free DNase (cat. no. 79254)?
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What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
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Would co-transfection with the plasmid be expected to increase/decrease the transfection efficiency significantly?
FAQ ID -3136
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How do I remove the RNA contamination from purified DNA?
FAQ ID -3133
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How can I know whether there is any genomic DNA present in my purified plasmid?
FAQ ID -3134
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Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat?
FAQ ID -3139
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How do I know whether my miRNA has been successfully purified and how much is expected?
FAQ ID -3135
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What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
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Has QIAGEN ever tested Proteinase K treatment for a time period longer than overnight?
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Does RNAprotect affect morphology of tissues?
FAQ ID -3142
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Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA?
FAQ ID -3143
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What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
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Are miScript primer assays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -3145
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What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
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Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
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Can single-stranded DNA be removed by gDNA Eliminator columns?
FAQ ID -3152
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How is total RNA purified with RNeasy kits free of genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -3154
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Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates?
FAQ ID -3155
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Does RNase-free DNase I affect the isolation of dsRNA?
FAQ ID -3153
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What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
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Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay?
FAQ ID -3138
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What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
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How long can I store an RLT lysate?
FAQ ID -3115
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What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
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Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from yeast/fungi directly from Blood?
FAQ ID -3150
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Is REST software Windows 7 compatible?
FAQ ID -3182
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Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3185
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Can QIAzol aqueous phase be used with the gDNA eliminator columns in RNeasy Plus mini kit?
FAQ ID -3151
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