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Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2390
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Why does TA/UA cloning work with your proofreading HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1053
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Why does my realtime PCR assay quality decrease over time?
FAQ ID -589
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Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
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Why does my PCR product show up later when comparing the QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits with Roche kits using the same annealing temperature?
FAQ ID -1083
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Why does my isolated RNA have a low OD 260/280 ratio?
FAQ ID -97
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Why does my DNA sample float out of the slot when loading it onto an agarose gel?
FAQ ID -205
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Why does an intensity calibration of the gel cartridge for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced need to be performed?
FAQ ID -1824
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Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
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Why do you recommend using Triton X for the purification of 6xHis-tagged protein?
-100
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Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
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Why do the amplification curves generated with ABI PRISM® 7000 SDS instrument look rather zigzag-shaped when compared to results generated with the ABI PRISM® 7700 SDS instrument?
FAQ ID -1522
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Why do replicates in real-time PCR have different plateau heights?
FAQ ID -539
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Why do QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits require such a high primer concentration?
FAQ ID -1443
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Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
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Why do pQE-T7 vectors of the QIAgenes E. coli system have an additional UAG amber stop codon?
FAQ ID -2043
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Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
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Why do melting temperatures differ between PCR fragments amplified with QIAGEN's QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits and Roche Kits?
FAQ ID -1084
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Why do I sometimes get light blue colonies when using the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -603
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Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
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Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
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Why do I observe a CT shift for the internal control in some samples in comparison to the CT value for the internal control of the dilution series of the Male Control DNA M1?
FAQ ID - 3734
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Why do I observe a CT shift for the Internal Control in some samples in comparison to the CT value for the Internal Control of the dilution series of the Male Control DNA M1?
FAQ ID - 3745
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Why do I observe a CT shift for the Internal Control in some samples in comparison to the Ct value for the Internal Control of the dilution series of the Control DNA Z1?
FAQ ID -2575
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Why do I need to identify my real-time instrument model when placing my order for RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2713
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Why do I need normalization using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2198
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Why do I have wavy DNA bands on my agarose gel?
FAQ ID -2260
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Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
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Why do I have to add beta-mercaptoethanol (beta-ME) to lysis Buffer RLT of the RNeasy Kits?
FAQ ID -101
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Why do I get smeared PCR products?
FAQ ID -87
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Why do I get genomic DNA contamination in my plasmid prep?
FAQ ID -353
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Why do I get different results for the loci SE33 if I analyze the same sample using the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit or Investigator Triplex AFS QS Kit?
FAQ ID -2401
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Why do I get amplification in a negative control DNA tube using the REPLI-g Kit for WGA?
FAQ ID -675
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Why do DNA samples appear in only a few channels when the alignment marker is working using the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1844
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Why do casework-sample protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit start with different lysate volumes (200 µl, 500 µl, or 1000 µl)?
FAQ ID -2035
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Why did you choose MAPK1 as a positive control in the QIAGEN RNAi Human/Mouse Control Kit?
FAQ ID -604
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Why did the real-time PCR yield Ct values < 12?
FAQ ID -2727
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Why can’t I see my QIAcube Connect instrument in the QIAcube Connect App?
FAQ ID - 1414518
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Why can't I find the DNA methylation qPCR Assay for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -2743
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Why can I not find the QuantiTect Primer Assay in GeneGlobe that I had previously ordered from QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -1138
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Why can I not find the Q-Base device in the device list during the first installation?
FAQ ID - 141516
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Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3022
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Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3603
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Why are there various different QuantiTect Primer Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -1133
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Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -2366
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Why are there no peaks in all channels during a run with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced??
FAQ ID -1847
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Why are the RT² qPCR Primer Assays not designed to cross exon-intron junctions or boundaries?
FAQ ID -2710
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Why are the QuantiTect and QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits limited to triplex real-time PCR on some cyclers?
FAQ ID -715
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Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
FAQ ID -2365
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Why are the fluorescence intensities of the HSV detection markedly lower than those of the HSV-1 detection using the artus® HSV 1/2 LC PCR Kit?
-2
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Why are the denaturation and annealing/extension times for QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits much shorter than those for QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2147
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Why are the centrifugation speeds for the QIAamp DNA Mini kit at 6000 x g? Can I spin at full speed?
FAQ ID -474
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Why are some of my samples outside of the cluster using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2204
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Why are some of my RNAprotect-stabilized samples frozen atºC while others are not?
ID -758
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Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using RNeasy Lipid Tissue Kits?
FAQ ID -533
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Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after addition of chloroform to the QIAzol lysates in following kits: RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini/Midi kits, RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini kit, RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kit, RNeasy 96 Universal Tissue kit, miRNeasy Mini kit, miRNeasy Micro kit, miRNeasy 96 kit and miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
FAQ ID -2345
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Why are PCR bands relatively weak and "smearing" but the alignment marker bands are sharp when running samples on the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1837
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Why are not all applications/kits/protocol files visible in the run setup (QIAcube Connect App)?
FAQ ID - 1414520
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Why are my realtime PCR amplification plots hook-shaped?
FAQ ID -587
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Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
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Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
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Why are most of my samples outside of the cluster in supervised mode using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2205
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Why and when is it necessary to use carrier DNA/RNA in the extraction procedure?
FAQ ID -1489
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Which version of the Rotor-Gene Q software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?
FAQ ID -2568
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Which version of the Applied Biosystems 7500 Real-Time PCR System software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?
FAQ ID -2569
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Which variants of the EasyXtal 15-well tool are available?
FAQ ID -2221
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Which types of collection tubes should preferentially be used for blood samples?
FAQ ID -1496
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Which types and amounts of sample material can be processed for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1937
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Which tubes are recommended for the QIAsymphony sample rack
FAQ ID - 3653
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Which transfection reagent is recommended for transfection of the miScript Target Protectors?
FAQ ID -2252
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Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2392
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Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator IDplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2403
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Which software updates are included in a Premium Cover Agreement for my QIAGEN Instrument?
FAQ ID -1336
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Which siRNA controls are available in FlexiTube format?
FAQ ID -1661
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Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3018
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Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3031
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Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye have to be adjusted before running the spectral calibration on the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2649
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Which sample volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3700
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Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2154
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Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
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Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
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Which sample materials can be tested using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2209
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Which sample materials are validated within the CE mark for the artus HSV/2 RG PCR
-1
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Which sample materials are CE-IVD validated for the RealStar Filovirus Screen?
FAQ ID - 3529
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Which sample material is validated within the CE mark for artus VZV RG PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2231
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Which Rotor-Gene Q System can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ Kit?
FAQ ID - 3742
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Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2312
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Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2315
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Which resin is used in the QIAexpress Ni-NTA Fast Start Columns?
FAQ ID -836
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Which regions are covered by the GR DNAseq V2 Panels (#181900)?
FAQ ID - 3688
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Which real-time PCR kits are recommended downstream of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1592
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Which real-time PCR files should customers forward when they want their data to be re-analyzed by artus® technical support?
FAQ ID -1508
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Which real-time PCR cyclers can be used with the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2208
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Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ Kit?
FAQ ID - 3743
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Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex Pro Kit?
FAQ ID - 3730
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Which QuantiTect Primer Assay should I choose for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -1135
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Which Qproteome or Protein Fractionation Kits from QIAGEN are compatible with tissue samples?
FAQ ID -755
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Which qPCR instrument should I use with your RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2714
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Which QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kit size should be used for each protocol?
FAQ ID -2038
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Which QIAGEN plasmid preparation kits will contain LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -865
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Which QIAGEN kit do you recommend for purifying plasmid DNA suitable for transfection of sensitive cells?
FAQ ID -1092
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Which QIAcube Connect standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
FAQ ID - 141508
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Which PyroMark Gold Q96 Reagent should be used for which instrument and application?
FAQ ID -2836
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Which purity grade is recommended for pyrosequencing primers?
FAQ ID -2832
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Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2386
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Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2380
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Which protocol line should I use to process plasma samples?
FAQ ID - 3654
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Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2361
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Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
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Which primers can I use for sequencing pQE-expression vector constructs?
FAQ ID -343
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Which plate formats are offered for QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2106
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Which plasma volumes can I process with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3648
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Which pathogens can be detected using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2206
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Which parts are exchanged during a Preventive Maintenance visit for my QIAGEN BioRobot?
FAQ ID -1334
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Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
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Which nucleotide analogs can be used with TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1741
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Which network settings are supported by the QIAcube Connect and Q-Base?
FAQ ID - 141517
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Which mode should I use in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software, supervised or unsupervised?
FAQ ID -2202
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Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
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Which materials can be used as input samples for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3702
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Which kits can be used in combination with the PyroMark CpG Assays and PyroMark Custom Assays?
FAQ ID -2822
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Which kits and protocols can be used to isolate nucleic acids from microdissected PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) specimens?
FAQ ID - 3617
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Which kit, the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit, do you recommend for transfection?
FAQ ID -2320
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Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
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Which kit should I use for RNA isolation from Cartilage?
FAQ ID -1026
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Which kit should be used to extract RNA from adipose tissue, brain, and other fatty animal tissues?
FAQ ID -467
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Which kit can be used for simultaneous purification of DNA and RNA from biopsies?
FAQ ID -1089
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Which kind of 96 and 384-well plates are available for FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1459
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Which is the best condition for eluting GST-tagged proteins from Glutathione Superflow?
FAQ ID -2173
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Which human target is used for the quantification?
FAQ ID - 3736
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Which human target is used for the quantification?
FAQ ID - 3747
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Which human target is used for the quantification in the Investigator Quantiplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2577
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Which homogenization method do you recommend for tissues stored in Allprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -1572
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Which heating block is recommended for the pyrosequencing annealing step?
FAQ ID -2838
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Which fraction will contain soluble mitochondrial proteins using the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -839
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Which fraction will contain endosomal, microsomal and lysosomal proteins using the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -808
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Which formats are available for FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1358
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Which fixation method is used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3600
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Which filter set should be used with the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2648
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Which filter set should be used with Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3017
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Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3030
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Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2396
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Which expression systems can be used with the QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia expression constructs?
FAQ ID -2049
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Which EpiTect Bisulfite Plus kit do you recommend for blood samples, cells, and tissues?
FAQ ID -2411
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Which end of the PCR primer for pyrosequencing should be biotinylated?
FAQ ID -2839
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Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
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Which elution volumes can be selected using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2160
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Which elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3655
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Which elution volume is used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3703
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Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3512
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Which downstream applications have been tested with ccfDNA purified from whole blood collected and processed with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA System?
FAQ ID - 3658
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Which DNA/RNA extraction kits were tested in combination with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2606
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Which DNA polymerases are included in artus® kits?
FAQ ID -1386
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Which disinfectants and cleaning agents do you recommend for the BioRobot EZ1 DSP?
FAQ ID -1561
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Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -2352
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Which density gel type is contained in the yellow or green MaXtract Tubes?
FAQ ID -1315
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Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
FAQ ID -2418
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Which controls can I choose for FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1368
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Which conditions are recommended for the storage of tissues in PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3605
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Which competent E. coli cells should I use to amplify the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2890
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