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What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
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What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
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What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
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What is the optimal DNA input and cycling conditions with the Investigator IDplex kit?
FAQ ID -2404
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What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2393
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What is the optimal order of pipetting artus® PCR samples?
FAQ ID -1397
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What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
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What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3028
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What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3015
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What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
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What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
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What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
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What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
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What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
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What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
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What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
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What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
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What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
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What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
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What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
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What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
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What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
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What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
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What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
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What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
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What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
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What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
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What is the QIAxcel Advanced System?
FAQ ID -2650
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
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What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
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What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
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What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
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What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
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What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
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What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
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What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
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What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
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What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
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What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
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What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
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What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect?
FAQ ID -647
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What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3565
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What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
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What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
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What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
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What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
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What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID -
143063
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What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
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What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
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What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
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What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
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What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3557
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What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
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What is the sample throughput of Pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
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What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
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What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
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What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
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What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
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What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
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What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
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What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
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What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
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What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
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What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
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What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
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What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
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What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
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What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
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What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
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What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
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What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
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What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
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What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
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What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
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What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
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What is the stabilization reagent of PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3602
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What is the standard assay volume recommended for LiquiChip assays?
FAQ ID -330
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What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
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What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
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What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
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What is the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids guarantee?
FAQ ID -2898
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What is the target nucleic acid for the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2158
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What is the thermal output for a BioRobot MDx and BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID -3056
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What is the thermal output for a QIAsymphony SP and AS instrument?
FAQ ID -3057
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What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
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What is the throughput of the QIAsymphony when using the DSP AXpH protocol?
FAQ ID -2271
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What is the turn around time for custom miScript miRNA mimics, inhibitors and primer assays?
FAQ ID -1985
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What is the turn around time for the ordering of miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2254
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What is the typical amount of tissue used for disruption with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2552
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What is the typical yield of site-specific labeled protein generated using the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -873
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What is the upper length of PCR products that can be amplified with TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix Kits?
FAQ ID -1738
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What is the use of the PyroMark Q24 Validation Oligo?
FAQ ID -2855
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What is the volume of the eluate when using either spin or vacuum procedures with the QIAprep 96 Turbo Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1067
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What is the white insoluble precipitate in my resuspended plasmid DNA pellet?
FAQ ID -352
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What is Tissue-Tek O.C.T., and what is it used for?
FAQ ID -530
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What is your recommendation for cleaning the TissueLyser Bead Dispenser (96-well format)?
FAQ ID -1055
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What kind of analysis does the EpiTect Hi-C Data Analysis Portal perform?
FAQ ID -
143076
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What kind of automation can be done with the EasyXtal 15-well Tool?
FAQ ID -2220
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What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Inhibitors?
FAQ ID -1983
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What kind of molecules are miScript miRNA Mimics?
FAQ ID -1986
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What kind of PCR products can be cloned with the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -165
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What kind of reading length can I expect when using Pyrosequencing technology for sequence analysis?
FAQ ID -2216
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What kind of sample tubes are recommended to use with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2553
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What kind of samples should be processed using the large-volume protocol with the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2034
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What kind of shaker should be used for the pyrosequencing binding step?
FAQ ID -2837
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3536
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What kind of starting material can be used with the REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3548
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What kind of strategy for initial screening of protein crystallization conditions do you recommend?
FAQ ID -1120
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What kits does QIAGEN offer to extract RNA from whole blood?
FAQ ID -304
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What library prep kits has QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147912
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What main input voltage is required for the QIAxcel Analyzer?
FAQ ID -1821
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What makes QIAGEN's 10x Taq and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase PCR buffer superior?
FAQ ID -566
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What method do you recommend to quantify DNA before running the KRAS and EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2292
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What method is used to eliminate adapter dimers from the QIAseq miRNA library?
FAQ ID - 3667
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What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
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What methods are used during normalization of RNAseq data in the secondary GeneGlobe Data Analysis Center?
FAQ ID - 3698
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What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
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What must I do if error code 29 is displayed in the LCD?
FAQ ID -1562
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What negative (unphosphorylated) and positive (phosphorylated) control proteins do you recommend for use with the PhosphoProtein Purification Kit?
FAQ ID -779
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What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
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What pathogens can be detected with the artus HSV/2 RG PCR Kits, and what is the LOD?
-1
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What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
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What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
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What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
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What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2387
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What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
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What possible reasons result in a sensitivity lower than that given in the artus® user handbook?
FAQ ID -1396
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What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
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What primers are used in the reverse-transcription step of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome procedure?
FAQ ID -1584
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What primers may I use to sequence the shRNA cassette within the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2886
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What programs does your Sequencing Service use to ensure accurate base calling, Sequence Quality, and Alignment?
FAQ ID -831
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What publicly funded Genome Sequencing Projects has QIAGEN's Sequencing Service been involved in?
FAQ ID -815
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What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
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What quality level does your Nuclease-Free Water have?
FAQ ID -1292
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What QuantiFast Kit should be used on the Eppendorf Mastercycler ep realplex?
FAQ ID -1436
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What reaction volume should I use with QuantiTect Kits?
FAQ ID -551
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What real time cyclers can be used with the therascreen KRAS PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2305
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What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
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What real-time PCR cyclers can the therascreen EGFR PCR Kit be used with?
FAQ ID -2310
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What region of LINE gets targeted by the assay for PyroMark Q96 MD or PyroMark Q24?
-1
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What RNA elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1943
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What RNA range has the QIAseq FastSelect been tested with?
FAQ ID -147914
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
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What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA System?
FAQ ID -2506
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What RNAs has QIAseq FastSelect been designed to remove?
FAQ ID -147910
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What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
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What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
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What sample input volumes can be used on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1907
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What sample numbers can be processed on the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2547
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What sample source do you support?
FAQ ID -
143066
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What sample tubes can I use on my QIAsymphony SP system?
FAQ ID - 3713
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
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What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria protocols?
FAQ ID -2036
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
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What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1915
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What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
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What sample types can be used with the AllPrep DNA/RNA 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1996
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What sample types can be used with the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1991
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What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
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What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
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What sample types should be processed with the High Content (HC) protocol for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1918
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What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
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What sample volume should be loaded on the QIAsymphony instrument for extraction of 2 ml and 4 ml samples?
FAQ ID - 3701
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What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
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What sample volumes can be processed with the QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kits?
FAQ ID -2037
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What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
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What sample volumes can be used with the Virus Blood 200 Protocol on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID -2156
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What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
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What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
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What sequencing primers can I use with the pDrive cloning vector of the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -292
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What should be the concentration of my protein for the Nextal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2417
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What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2325
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What should be the single peak height for the PyroMark Control Oligo on the different PyroMark instruments?
FAQ ID -2852
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What should I do if cryoprecipitates form while thawing a frozen plasma sample?
FAQ ID - 3646
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What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
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What should I use as a standard for absolute quantification in real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1085
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What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
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What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
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What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
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What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
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What should the starting template DNA quality and quantity be for PCR?
FAQ ID -74
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What single cell isolation methods are recommended for use with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3582
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What size bead should I use for tougher samples with the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2554
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What size is the smallest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -600
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What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
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What species are QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates offered for?
FAQ ID -2110
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What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
FAQ ID -2367
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What specification do you have for the high-speed shaker system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3526
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What starting amount of RNA purified using an miRNeasy Kit should be used with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1597
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What starting material can be used with the Qproteome Mitochondria Isolation Kit?
FAQ ID -1184
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What technologies are used by the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2286
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What technologies are used by the therascreen PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2287
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What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
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What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
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What to do if alignment marker and samples are migrating too slowly and the upper alignment marker does not appear on the gel- and/or electropherogram view with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1833
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What to do if cell clumps are present after Buffer P2 addition when using LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -861
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What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
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What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
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What transfection reagents are compatible with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2764
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What tubes can be used with TissueLyser Adapter Set 2 x 96 (cat. no. 69984)?
FAQ ID -3086
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What type of magnet do you recommend for handling the magnetic beads in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol?
FAQ ID -1193
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What type of promoter should my template have for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1223
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What type of samples can I use for the KRAS PCR and EGFR kits?
FAQ ID -2293
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What type of Sequencing Services does QIAGEN offer?
FAQ ID -781
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What types of materials from environmental samples could interfere with WGA?
FAQ ID -666
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What types of reaction vessels are required for use in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2085
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What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
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What vacuum pressure should be applied using the QIAvac 24 Plus for the QIAamp DSP Virus Kit and Blood Mini Kit Protocols?
FAQ ID -1033
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What vector do you recommend as template for in-vitro protein expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1224
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What voltage should be used to run my agarose gel with the GelPilot Agarose?
FAQ ID -2261
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What volume of bacterial culture can be processed using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1357
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What will happen, if the normalized DNA for the SeqTarget System is eluted with Buffer EB instead of EB2?
FAQ ID -2242
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What would happen if I used home-made PCR master mixes or master mixes from other manufacturers with the RT² products?
FAQ ID -2715
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What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
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When delivering liquid to a 96-well plate using the MultiFlow Dispenser Head on my BioRobot , one or more rows in the plate contains less liquid per well than specified by the protocol. What is going wrong?
FAQ ID -653
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When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
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When is chloramphenicol amplification of plasmids performed?
FAQ ID -3
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When isolating DNA from plant cells using CTAB, should MaXtract Low or High Density be used?
FAQ ID -1308
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When multiplexing samples, what sample indexes should be combined?
FAQ ID - 3664
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When negative results are generated using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits, do I rerun them?
FAQ ID -2294
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When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3576
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When performing real-time PCR quality control associated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit, is it necessary to perform control experiments for all individual samples/cells?
FAQ ID - 3575
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When performing the Internal Control assay for the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what channel or filter can be used to detect MAX?
FAQ ID -2597
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When preparing plasma with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA tubes, cat. # 768115, do you recommend that the first centrifugation step should be done with the brakes on or off?
FAQ ID - 3690
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When running RNA samples using the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced, are there any special things to consider?
FAQ ID -1842
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When searching for a QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest, why do I only find the assay for human but not for rat?
FAQ ID -1139
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When should an intensity calibration be re-performed on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1825
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When should carrier be used with the QIAamp DNA Mini or the DNeasy Blood & Tissue Kit?
FAQ ID -100
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When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
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When should the EZ1 DNA Investigator Normalization protocol be used?
FAQ ID -1155
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When should the N2 bottle used with the QIAxcel Advanced System be changed?
FAQ ID -3001
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When should the N2 bottle used with the QIAxcel System be changed?
FAQ ID -1830
View
When using HiPerFect HTS Reagent is it necessary to optimize amount of siRNA and transfection reagent?
FAQ ID -2556
View
When using QIAzol Lysis Reagent for RNA extraction, I see a pinkish colored aqueous phase! Is it OK?
FAQ ID -534
View
When using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit, what should the fluorescent label of the probe be for the customer-defined assay to detect the pathogen?
FAQ ID -2594
View
When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
View
Where are the somatic mutations published?
FAQ ID -2429
View
Where can I access Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) online for detailed information on the reagents for each respective kit?
FAQ ID -3085
View
Where can I find a copy of the .kpf file for a BioSprint protocol?
FAQ ID -3073
View
Where can I find a copy of the report file generated by running 'Maintenance Protocol I' on my BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -806
View
Where can I find a copy of the report files generated by running accessory protocols "Dilutor Delivery (monthly)" and "High-Speed Pipetting Sytem (monthly)" on my BioRobot 9604?
FAQ ID -766
View
Where can I find a protocol for cleanup of already purified plasmid DNA?
FAQ ID -1031
View
Where can I find additional information for PreAnalytiX PAXgene products?
FAQ ID - 3515
View
Where can I find background information and literature on Whole Genome Amplification with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -1690
View
Where can I find general information about RT-PCR and PCR arrays such as information about sample preparation, reverse transcription, quantitative PCR, real-time PCR, and PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2446
View
Where can I find info on compatible reporter dyes for use in real-time multiplex PCR using the QuantiTect Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -719
View
Where can I find information about the worktable setup on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1243
View
Where can I find QIAGEN products for a specific gene or gene product?
FAQ ID -803
View
Where can I find the certificate of calibration for the Rotor-Disc OTV Kit (catalog number 981400)?
FAQ ID - 3695
View
Where can I find the composition tables for solutions used in individual Crystallization Screening Suites?
FAQ ID -1124
View
Where can I find the gene list for a specific RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID - 3684
View
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube accessories such as Shaker Rack plugs, Rack labeling strips, Reagent bottle rack, 30mL Reagent bottles, Rotor Adapter holder, Rotor adapters, Sample tubes CB, Sample tubes RB and Spin column adapter rings?
FAQ ID -3054
View
Where can I find the ordering information for QIAcube Connect accessories such as shaker rack plugs, rack labeling strips, reagent bottle racks, 30 ml reagent bottles, rotor-adapter holder, rotor adapters, sample tubes CB, sample tubes RB and spin-column adapter rings?
FAQ ID - 141505
View
Where can I find the public Smith-Waterman homology search tool that you refer to on your siRNA online design page?
FAQ ID -562
View
Where can I find the serial number on QIAGEN's BioRobots?
FAQ ID -1064
View
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3032
View
Where can I find the template files for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3019
View
Where can I order the Streptavidin Sepharose beads for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2850
View
Where should I add a dye-label modification on the siRNA?
FAQ ID -648
View
Where to find explanations to the warning given by the PyroMark software after run data analysis?
FAQ ID -2874
View
Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
View
Which analyses can be performed with the PyroMark Q96 ID software version 1.0?
FAQ ID -2845
View
Which analyses can be performed with the PyroMark Q96 MD software?
FAQ ID -2866
View
Which Anti-His Antibody is the most sensitive for my protein of interest?
FAQ ID -172
View
Which barcodes on sample tubes are accepted by the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID - 3598
View
Which BioRobot EZ1 instruments can be upgraded to become CE-IVDcompliant?
FAQ ID -1560
View
Which capillary sequencers can be used for detection of amplicons from the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2063
View
Which cell collection methods are compatible with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3543
View
Which cell collection methods are compatible with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3555
View
Which cell lines have been tested with FastLane Cell RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1485
View
Which chemical products do you use to prepare screening solutions for protein crystallization?
FAQ ID -1122
View
Which chloroform should I use for the RNeasy Lipid Tissue Kit?
FAQ ID -516
View
Which competent E. coli cells should I use to amplify the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2890
View
Which conditions are recommended for the storage of tissues in PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID - 3605
View
Which controls can I choose for FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1368
View
Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
FAQ ID -2418
View
Which density gel type is contained in the yellow or green MaXtract Tubes?
FAQ ID -1315
View
Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -2352
View
Which disinfectants and cleaning agents do you recommend for the BioRobot EZ1 DSP?
FAQ ID -1561
View
Which DNA polymerases are included in artus® kits?
FAQ ID -1386
View
Which DNA/RNA extraction kits were tested in combination with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2606
View
Which downstream applications have been tested with ccfDNA purified from whole blood collected and processed with the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA System?
FAQ ID - 3658
View
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3384
View
Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3512
View
Which elution volume is used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3703
View
Which elution volumes are available with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3655
View
Which elution volumes can be selected using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2160
View
Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
View
Which end of the PCR primer for pyrosequencing should be biotinylated?
FAQ ID -2839
View
Which EpiTect Bisulfite Plus kit do you recommend for blood samples, cells, and tissues?
FAQ ID -2411
View
Which expression systems can be used with the QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia expression constructs?
FAQ ID -2049
View
Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2396
View
Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3030
View
Which filter set should be used with Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3017
View
Which filter set should be used with the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2648
View
Which fixation method is used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3600
View
Which formats are available for FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1358
View
Which fraction will contain endosomal, microsomal and lysosomal proteins using the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -808
View
Which fraction will contain soluble mitochondrial proteins using the Qproteome Cell Compartment Kit?
FAQ ID -839
View
Which heating block is recommended for the pyrosequencing annealing step?
FAQ ID -2838
View
Which homogenization method do you recommend for tissues stored in Allprotect Tissue Reagent?
FAQ ID -1572
View
Which human target is used for the quantification in the Investigator Quantiplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2577
View
Which human target is used for the quantification?
FAQ ID - 3736
View
Which human target is used for the quantification?
FAQ ID - 3747
View
Which is the best condition for eluting GST-tagged proteins from Glutathione Superflow?
FAQ ID -2173
View
Which kind of 96 and 384-well plates are available for FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1459
View
Which kit can be used for simultaneous purification of DNA and RNA from biopsies?
FAQ ID -1089
View
Which kit should be used to extract RNA from adipose tissue, brain, and other fatty animal tissues?
FAQ ID -467
View
Which kit should I use for RNA isolation from Cartilage?
FAQ ID -1026
View
Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
View
Which kit, the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit, do you recommend for transfection?
FAQ ID -2320
View
Which kits and protocols can be used to isolate nucleic acids from microdissected PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) specimens?
FAQ ID - 3617
View
Which kits can be used in combination with the PyroMark CpG Assays and PyroMark Custom Assays?
FAQ ID -2822
View
Which materials can be used as input samples for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3702
View
Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
View
Which mode should I use in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software, supervised or unsupervised?
FAQ ID -2202
View
Which network settings are supported by the QIAcube Connect and Q-Base?
FAQ ID - 141517
View
Which nucleotide analogs can be used with TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1741
View
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
View
Which parts are exchanged during a Preventive Maintenance visit for my QIAGEN BioRobot?
FAQ ID -1334
View
Which pathogens can be detected using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2206
View
Which plasma volumes can I process with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3648
View
Which plate formats are offered for QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2106
View
Which primers can I use for sequencing pQE-expression vector constructs?
FAQ ID -343
View
Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
View
Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2361
View
Which protocol line should I use to process plasma samples?
FAQ ID - 3654
View
Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2380
View
Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2386
View
Which purity grade is recommended for pyrosequencing primers?
FAQ ID -2832
View
Which PyroMark Gold Q96 Reagent should be used for which instrument and application?
FAQ ID -2836
View
Which QIAcube Connect standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
FAQ ID - 141508
View
Which QIAGEN kit do you recommend for purifying plasmid DNA suitable for transfection of sensitive cells?
FAQ ID -1092
View
Which QIAGEN plasmid preparation kits will contain LyseBlue Reagent?
FAQ ID -865
View
Which QIAsymphony Virus/Bacteria Kit size should be used for each protocol?
FAQ ID -2038
View
Which qPCR instrument should I use with your RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2714
View
Which Qproteome or Protein Fractionation Kits from QIAGEN are compatible with tissue samples?
FAQ ID -755
View
Which QuantiTect Primer Assay should I choose for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -1135
View
Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex Pro Kit?
FAQ ID - 3730
View
Which real-time cycler software version can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ Kit?
FAQ ID - 3743
View
Which real-time PCR cyclers can be used with the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2208
View
Which real-time PCR files should customers forward when they want their data to be re-analyzed by artus® technical support?
FAQ ID -1508
View
Which real-time PCR kits are recommended downstream of the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1592
View
Which regions are covered by the GR DNAseq V2 Panels (#181900)?
FAQ ID - 3688
View
Which resin is used in the QIAexpress Ni-NTA Fast Start Columns?
FAQ ID -836
View
Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2315
View
Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2312
View
Which Rotor-Gene Q System can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex Pro RGQ Kit?
FAQ ID - 3742
View
Which sample material is validated within the CE mark for artus VZV RG PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2231
View
Which sample materials are validated within the CE mark for the artus HSV/2 RG PCR
-1
View
Which sample materials can be tested using the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2209
View
Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
View
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
View
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony Virus Blood 200 protocol?
FAQ ID -2154
View
Which sample volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Circulating DNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3700
View
Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye have to be adjusted before running the spectral calibration on the Investigator ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2649
View
Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3031
View
Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3018
View
Which siRNA controls are available in FlexiTube format?
FAQ ID -1661
View
Which software updates are included in a Premium Cover Agreement for my QIAGEN Instrument?
FAQ ID -1336
View
Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator IDplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2403
View
Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2392
View
Which transfection reagent is recommended for transfection of the miScript Target Protectors?
FAQ ID -2252
View
Which tubes are recommended for the QIAsymphony sample rack
FAQ ID - 3653
View
Which types and amounts of sample material can be processed for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1937
View
Which types of collection tubes should preferentially be used for blood samples?
FAQ ID -1496
View
Which variants of the EasyXtal 15-well tool are available?
FAQ ID -2221
View
Which version of the Applied Biosystems 7500 Real-Time PCR System software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?
FAQ ID -2569
View
Which version of the Rotor-Gene Q software can be used to run the Investigator Quantiplex?
FAQ ID -2568
View
Why and when is it necessary to use carrier DNA/RNA in the extraction procedure?
FAQ ID -1489
View
Why are most of my samples outside of the cluster in supervised mode using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2205
View
Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
View
Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
View
Why are my realtime PCR amplification plots hook-shaped?
FAQ ID -587
View
Why are not all applications/kits/protocol files visible in the run setup (QIAcube Connect App)?
FAQ ID - 1414520
View
Why are PCR bands relatively weak and "smearing" but the alignment marker bands are sharp when running samples on the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1837
View
Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after addition of chloroform to the QIAzol lysates in following kits: RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini/Midi kits, RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini kit, RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kit, RNeasy 96 Universal Tissue kit, miRNeasy Mini kit, miRNeasy Micro kit, miRNeasy 96 kit and miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
FAQ ID -2345
View
Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using RNeasy Lipid Tissue Kits?
FAQ ID -533
View
Why are some of my RNAprotect-stabilized samples frozen atºC while others are not?
ID -758
View
Why are some of my samples outside of the cluster using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2204
View
Why are the centrifugation speeds for the QIAamp DNA Mini kit at 6000 x g? Can I spin at full speed?
FAQ ID -474
View
Why are the denaturation and annealing/extension times for QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits much shorter than those for QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2147
View
Why are the fluorescence intensities of the HSV detection markedly lower than those of the HSV-1 detection using the artus® HSV 1/2 LC PCR Kit?
-2
View
Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
FAQ ID -2365
View
Why are the QuantiTect and QuantiFast Multiplex PCR Kits limited to triplex real-time PCR on some cyclers?
FAQ ID -715
View
Why are the RT² qPCR Primer Assays not designed to cross exon-intron junctions or boundaries?
FAQ ID -2710
View
Why are there no peaks in all channels during a run with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced??
FAQ ID -1847
View
Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -2366
View
Why are there various different QuantiTect Primer Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -1133
View
Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3022
View
Why are two reagents used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID - 3603
View
Why can I not find the Q-Base device in the device list during the first installation?
FAQ ID - 141516
View
Why can I not find the QuantiTect Primer Assay in GeneGlobe that I had previously ordered from QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -1138
View
Why can't I find the DNA methylation qPCR Assay for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -2743
View
Why can’t I see my QIAcube Connect instrument in the QIAcube Connect App?
FAQ ID - 1414518
View
Why did the real-time PCR yield Ct values < 12?
FAQ ID -2727
View
Why did you choose MAPK1 as a positive control in the QIAGEN RNAi Human/Mouse Control Kit?
FAQ ID -604
View
Why do casework-sample protocols for the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit start with different lysate volumes (200 µl, 500 µl, or 1000 µl)?
FAQ ID -2035
View
Why do DNA samples appear in only a few channels when the alignment marker is working using the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1844
View
Why do I get amplification in a negative control DNA tube using the REPLI-g Kit for WGA?
FAQ ID -675
View
Why do I get different results for the loci SE33 if I analyze the same sample using the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit or Investigator Triplex AFS QS Kit?
FAQ ID -2401
View
Why do I get genomic DNA contamination in my plasmid prep?
FAQ ID -353
View
Why do I get smeared PCR products?
FAQ ID -87
View
Why do I have to add beta-mercaptoethanol (beta-ME) to lysis Buffer RLT of the RNeasy Kits?
FAQ ID -101
View
Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
View
Why do I have wavy DNA bands on my agarose gel?
FAQ ID -2260
View
Why do I need normalization using Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2198
View
Why do I need to identify my real-time instrument model when placing my order for RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2713
View
Why do I observe a CT shift for the Internal Control in some samples in comparison to the Ct value for the Internal Control of the dilution series of the Control DNA Z1?
FAQ ID -2575
View
Why do I observe a CT shift for the internal control in some samples in comparison to the CT value for the internal control of the dilution series of the Male Control DNA M1?
FAQ ID - 3734
View
Why do I observe a CT shift for the Internal Control in some samples in comparison to the CT value for the Internal Control of the dilution series of the Male Control DNA M1?
FAQ ID - 3745
View
Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
View
Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
View
Why do I sometimes get light blue colonies when using the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -603
View
Why do melting temperatures differ between PCR fragments amplified with QIAGEN's QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits and Roche Kits?
FAQ ID -1084
View
Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
View
Why do pQE-T7 vectors of the QIAgenes E. coli system have an additional UAG amber stop codon?
FAQ ID -2043
View
Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
View
Why do QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits require such a high primer concentration?
FAQ ID -1443
View
Why do replicates in real-time PCR have different plateau heights?
FAQ ID -539
View
Why do the amplification curves generated with ABI PRISM® 7000 SDS instrument look rather zigzag-shaped when compared to results generated with the ABI PRISM® 7700 SDS instrument?
FAQ ID -1522
View
Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
View
Why do you recommend using Triton X for the purification of 6xHis-tagged protein?
-100
View
Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
View
Why does an intensity calibration of the gel cartridge for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced need to be performed?
FAQ ID -1824
View
Why does my DNA sample float out of the slot when loading it onto an agarose gel?
FAQ ID -205
View
Why does my isolated RNA have a low OD 260/280 ratio?
FAQ ID -97
View
Why does my PCR product show up later when comparing the QuantiTect SYBR Green PCR Kits with Roche kits using the same annealing temperature?
FAQ ID -1083
View
Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
View
Why does my realtime PCR assay quality decrease over time?
FAQ ID -589
View
Why does TA/UA cloning work with your proofreading HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1053
View
Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2390
View
Why does the Allprep DNA/RNA 96 Kit use Buffer RLT, whereas the AllPrep DNA/RNA Mini Kit uses Buffer RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1999
View
Why does the connection test fail?
FAQ ID - 141522
View
Why does the copy function not apply relative to migration time and normalized area values after loading the DNA size marker table and adding the alignment marker peaks on the QIAxcel System?
FAQ ID -1832
View
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
View
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
View
Why does the fluorescence signal drop sharply at the beginning of an artus® PCR run?
FAQ ID -1498
View
Why does the miScript Target Protector not induce the degradation process?
FAQ ID -2263
View
Why does the Power LED not function with the QIAxcel or QIAxcel Advanced instrument plugged in and the main power switch turned on?
FAQ ID -1851
View
Why does the QIAamp DNA Mini Tissue Protocol require both ATL and AL buffer, while the Blood Protocol only uses AL?
FAQ ID -633
View
Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
View
Why does the QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest have only one version number?
FAQ ID -1134
View
Why does the SeqTarget Prep Protocol require a 2-step procedure?
FAQ ID -2238
View
Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
View
Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
View
Why had my RT² SYBR Green Mastermix been working well in the past, but now does not seem to be?
FAQ ID -2717
View
Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
View
Why is 'NO COM' displayed on the QIAxcel Instrument Panel although the power is on and all connections are made to the QIAxcel instrument and computer?
FAQ ID -1848
View
Why is 18S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) used as a housekeeping gene to normalize sample-to-sample, systematic variation in qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2675
View
Why is a 2-step (and not a 3-step) cycling protocol recommended for QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1450
View
Why is a 2-step (and not a 3-step) cycling protocol recommended for Rotor-Gene SYBR Green Kits?
FAQ ID -2122
View
Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
View
Why is a blood collection set required to collect blood into the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3628
View
Why is an ice-incubation step included during reaction set-up when following the QuantiTect RT-PCR but not the QuantiTect PCR protocol.
FAQ ID -283
View
Why is carrier RNA used during the isolation of gDNA from microdissected samples with the QIAamp DNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -473
View
Why is CoralLoad included in the Type-it Mutation Detect, but not in the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2068
View
Why is DTT used only for semen samples?
FAQ ID -
143761
View
Why is EvaGreen instead of SYBR Green used as fluorescent dye in the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2196
View
Why is it not recommended to stabilize cells with RNAprotect?
FAQ ID -941
View
Why is it recommended to add 1 mM IPTG for optimal protein yields using the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis Kits?
FAQ ID -860
View
Why is maximum amplicon size for the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit limited to 500 bp?
FAQ ID -2060
View
Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3349
View
Why is my EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay "failed" as indicated in the QC page of the data analysis Excel file?
FAQ ID -2734
View
Why is my no template control (NTC) real-time Ct value < 35 cycles in my qPCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2686
View
Why is my plasmid DNA yield low?
FAQ ID -768
View
Why is special Type-it Fast SNP Probe PCR chemistry required for TaqMan® SNP Genotyping?
FAQ ID -2057
View
Why is the activation time for HotStarTaq Plus Polymerase in the QuantiFast SYBR Green Kits different from that for QuantiFast Probe Kits?
FAQ ID -1449
View
Why is the alignment marker for the 1.8 kb fragment not visible when using the 25 bp/1.8 kb DNA Size Marker together with the 15 bp/400 bp marker on the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1835
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Why is the copy number call lower than expected?
FAQ ID — 3413
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Why is the final heat denaturation step so important with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2987
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Why is the fluorescence signal of the Internal Control on my Rotor-Gene Q very low?
FAQ ID -2574
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Why is the IC not detectable although the analytical PCR is negative?
FAQ ID -1506
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Why is the IC not detectable although the analytical PCR is positive?
FAQ ID -1505
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Why is the initial activation step different for Rotor-Gene Probe, SYBR Green and Multiplex Kits?
FAQ ID -2118
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Why is the initial fluorescence signal too high when using artus PCR assays on the Rotor-Gene cycler?
FAQ ID -1497
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Why is the magnesium (Mg2+) solution supplied in a separate tube in the artus® Parvo B19 PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1533
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Why is the pQE DNA provided in QIAexpress Kits blue in color?
FAQ ID -487
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Why is the QIAamp Viral RNA Mini Kit (50) currently unavailable?
FAQ ID -147395
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Why is the QIAcube Connect App reacting so slowly?
FAQ ID - 141519
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Why is the qRT-PCR reproducibility so critical when detecting gene expression knock down in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2774
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Why is the QuantiFast denaturation step different for PCR and RT-PCR runs in the two-step protocol for the ABI 7500 and other cyclers?
FAQ ID -1442
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Why is the reaction volume for QuantiFast PCR Kits lower than that for QuantiTect PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1447
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Why is the RT step with the QuantiFast RT Kits much shorter compared to QuantiTect RT Kits?
FAQ ID -1451
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Why is the storage time for QuantiFast PCR Kits shorter than that for QuantiTect PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1446
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Why is the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit recommended for preamplification of SNPs?
FAQ ID -2067
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Why is there an asterisk for my miScript Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2176
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Why is there DNA in the no-template (negative) control when using the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1620
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Why is there DNA in the no-template control reaction when using the standard REPLI-g procedure, but not when using the UltraFast procedure?
FAQ ID -1327
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Why is there more than one QIAgene for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -2044
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Why is there no detection of free reporter fluorescence in the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -732
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Why is there no male DNA obtained from sexual assault samples?
FAQ ID -
143767
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Why is there no QuantiTect Primer Assay for my gene of interest?
FAQ ID -1140
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Why is there no vacuum-only protocol for the RNeasy Plus 96 Kit?
FAQ ID -1993
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Why is there RNA in the DNA eluate when using the AllPrep DNA Mini Spin Column?
FAQ ID -1044
View
Why might Affymetrix GeneChip Mapping assays interfere with the REPLI-g FFPE kit?
FAQ ID -1755
View
Why might my gene of interest drop out during WGA if it is not near a telomere or centromere?
FAQ ID -703
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Why should DNA or cDNA targets be less than 250 bp long for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID-751
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Why should I use RT² SYBR Green Mastermix with RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2706
View
Why should I use the EpiTect Plus FFPE Bisulfite Kit instead of isolating FFPE DNA first and then doing the bisulfite conversion?
FAQ ID -2412
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Why should I use the RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini Kit when purifying RNA for microarray analysis?
FAQ ID -2188
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Why should I work with diluted or undiluted screens?
FAQ ID -2419
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Why would clumps occur following the addition of Buffer P2 when using LyseBlue Reagent in a plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -862
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Will acetone precipitation recommended in the Qproteome Protocols denature Protein?
FAQ ID -807
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Will biotin detection assays be efficient when doing in vitro translation from E. coli lysates with the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin Kit?
FAQ ID -878
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Will DNA from chromosomes collected in TE with a drop of mineral oil work with REPLI-g amplification?
FAQ ID -664
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Will dUTP in a PCR reaction affect pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2843
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Will integral, peripheral as well as lipid-anchored plasma membrane proteins be isolated with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1199
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Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA tissue protocols and QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2991
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Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA Tissue protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1921
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Will pancreas tissue swim on top of RNAprotect?
FAQ ID -536
View
Will pipetting error affect the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array results?
FAQ ID -2741
View
Will pipetting error affect the miRNA qPCR Assay results?
FAQ ID -2728
View
Will proteins eluted in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol be modified, e.g. with the ligand?
FAQ ID -1195
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Will qBiomarker Copy Number Assays work with heterogeneous samples like mixtures of tumor and normal tissue?
FAQ ID — 3419
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Will QIAseq FastSelect work in other species?
FAQ ID -147911
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Will QuantiTect Primer Assays work at an annealing temperature of 60ºC with QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR and RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -1553
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Will QuantiTect Primer Assays work with Rotor-Gene SYBR Green Kits using an annealing step at 60ºC?
FAQ ID -2124
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Will REPLI-g work at high temperatures?
FAQ ID -656
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Will Rotor-Gene Kits also work on the Rotor-Gene 6000 and 3000 cyclers?
FAQ ID -2121
View
Will site-specific biotin labeling with the EasyXpress Site-Specific Biotin kit alter the structure and function of my protein?
FAQ ID -877
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Will TA cloning work with REPLI-g WGA product?
FAQ ID -672
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Will the "classic" RNeasy Mini Kit be discontinued after the launch of the Allprep DNA/RNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -1054
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Will the 2x QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Master Mix freeze at -20°C?
FAQ ID - 525
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Will the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit work with suspension cells?
FAQ ID -801
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Will the ligand in the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein protocol be specific for plasma membrane exclusively?
FAQ ID -1198
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Will the optimized DNA sequence for QIAgenes be provided?
FAQ ID -2045
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Will the PhosphoSerine antibody recognize Serine residues if the neighboring residues are Leucine or Isoleucine?
FAQ ID -644
View
Will the primer sequence for the PyroMark CpG Assay be provided?
FAQ ID -2823
View
Will the QIAquick PCR Purification Kit remove sufficient SYBR Green from real-time PCR reactions to allow sequencing?
FAQ ID -637
View
Will the QIAxcel System run using a green Data Review Software Key?
FAQ ID -1853
View
Will the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit work with starting materials other than adherent mammalian cells?
FAQ ID -1202
View
Will the random hexamers in the REPLI-g reaction interfere with downstream analysis?
FAQ ID -713
View
Will the REPLI-g UltraFast Mini Kit reaction always yield 10 µg DNA?
FAQ ID -1328
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Will the Reverse transcription control on the RT2 profiler PCR array work on any cDNA library?
FAQ ID - 3534
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Will the sequence of the QuantiFast Probe Assays be provided?
FAQ ID -2369
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Will the sequences of the QuantiTect Primer Assays be provided?
FAQ ID -804
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Will Uracil-N-Glycosylase (UNG) completely remove contaminating amplicons when using QuantiTect +UNG Kits?
FAQ ID -2139
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With LyseBlue reagent for lysis control, can I now process more bacterial culture and overload the columns?
FAQ ID -864
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With which platform can I perform my sequencing?
FAQ ID -
143072
View
With which read length should the EpiTect Hi-C NGS libraries be sequenced
FAQ ID -
143073
View
Would co-transfection with the plasmid be expected to increase/decrease the transfection efficiency significantly?
FAQ ID -3136
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