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Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?
FAQ ID -3160
Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?
FAQ ID -3161
Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?
FAQ ID -3162
Do you have data on the DNA yield at different incubation time for the Repli-G Kits?
FAQ ID -3113
How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade?
FAQ ID -3163
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry compared to PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
Does QIAGEN provide template files for GeneMapper® 5 software?
FAQ ID -3177
Can the Rotor-Gene Q perform gradient PCR?
FAQ ID -3183
Can Rotor-Gene Reports be modified?
FAQ ID -3184
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
Aside from the OTV test, what other maintenance should be done for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3181
3187 - Why does the Ni-NTA resin turn reddish-brown after mixing with the lysates?
Are the miRNA Target Protector & miRNA mimic bench tested? Any guarantee?
FAQ ID - 3186
3191 - Is the Allprep DNA Mini Spin Column the same as the gDNA eliminator column? Can I interchange these columns?
3192 - Is QIAGEN Protease compatible with Buffer ATL?
3199 - Which species can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3193 - Where can I get an RNase-free syringe that is recommended for reconstituting QIAGEN's RNase-free DNase (cat. no. 79254)?
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
Would co-transfection with the plasmid be expected to increase/decrease the transfection efficiency significantly?
FAQ ID -3136
How do I remove the RNA contamination from purified DNA?
FAQ ID -3133
How can I know whether there is any genomic DNA present in my purified plasmid?
FAQ ID -3134
Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat?
FAQ ID -3139
How do I know whether my miRNA has been successfully purified and how much is expected?
FAQ ID -3135
What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
Has QIAGEN ever tested Proteinase K treatment for a time period longer than overnight?
Does RNAprotect affect morphology of tissues?
FAQ ID -3142
Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA?
FAQ ID -3143
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
Are miScript primer assays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -3145
What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
Can single-stranded DNA be removed by gDNA Eliminator columns?
FAQ ID -3152
How is total RNA purified with RNeasy kits free of genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -3154
Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates?
FAQ ID -3155
Does RNase-free DNase I affect the isolation of dsRNA?
FAQ ID -3153
What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay?
FAQ ID -3138
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
How long can I store an RLT lysate?
FAQ ID -3115
What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from yeast/fungi directly from Blood?
FAQ ID -3150
Is REST software Windows 7 compatible?
FAQ ID -3182
Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3185
Can QIAzol aqueous phase be used with the gDNA eliminator columns in RNeasy Plus mini kit?
FAQ ID -3151
What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
3197 -Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator HDplex kit?
How do I prepare the Spike-in-Control catalog # 219610 to get copies/μl?
FAQ ID -3170
Can I use genomic DNA from fixed samples with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3416
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
Can I use amplified genomic DNA with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3415
Do the samples require pretreatment before starting the manual protocol or before loading onto the QIAcube instrument?
FAQ ID - 3479
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with PAXgene miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3480
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3481
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at 4°C?
FAQ ID - 3493
How should I thaw frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3495
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
3497 - What is the expected purity and size of DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3497
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be frozen? If yes, at what temperatures and for how long?
FAQ ID - 3491
Can mitochondrial DNA be isolated with the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3498
Does the DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA System contain RNA?
FAQ ID - 3499
What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
Can I multiplex the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3408
Can I measure virulence factor gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3405
What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
Can I measure antibiotic resistance gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3404
Are the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays wet-lab verified?
FAQ ID — 3406
What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
Are the assays species-specific?
FAQ ID — 3400
Why is the copy number call lower than expected?
FAQ ID — 3413
Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
Will qBiomarker Copy Number Assays work with heterogeneous samples like mixtures of tumor and normal tissue?
FAQ ID — 3419
How should I analyze the data generated from a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array experiment?
FAQ ID — 3421
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
How much DNA should I use on a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array?
FAQ ID — 3417
How much DNA should I use in a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Assay?
FAQ ID — 3418
How do you choose which assays to include on the arrays?
FAQ ID — 3420
What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3477
Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
As part of my RT procedure I routinely heat an aliquot of the eluate prior to the RT reaction. Do I still need to heat the whole eluate after the RNA preparation?
FAQ ID - 3468
Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm?
FAQ ID - 3460
I need to buy a new computer for my PyroMark Q96. Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q96 software on my new computer or do I need to purchase a new license?
FAQ ID - 3472
Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q24 software on my new computer or following an operating system upgrade, or do I need to purchase a new license?

FAQ ID - 3473

Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at higher temperatures?
FAQ ID - 3494
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3476
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
2. Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes CE (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)?
FAQ ID - 3485
Are the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes sterile?
FAQ ID - 3487
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3483
Do I have to use a blood collection set with the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3484
How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be shipped?
FAQ ID - 3489
How long can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be kept at room temperature? What is room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3492
Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
How should blood samples drawn into the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored?
FAQ ID - 3490
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify plant miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3431
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify animal miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3433
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify piRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3432
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify piRNA expression?

FAQ ID - 3434

Are any of the miScript II RT Kit components interchangeable with the miScript Plant RT Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3436
Does the miScript Plant RT Kit contain controls?
FAQ ID - 3435
What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
Are miScript Primer Assays available for plant mature miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3439
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
Are miScript Primer Assay included in miScript miRNA PCR Arrays the same primers as the miScript Primer Assays available in individual tubes?
FAQ ID - 3441

 

Are plant miScript Primer Assay designs wet-bench validated?
FAQ ID - 3440
Can you describe the adaptor found in the 10x miScript Plant Adaptor?
FAQ ID - 3442
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
Can cDNA synthesized with the miScript Plant RT Kit be used in real-time PCR with TaqMan® MicroRNA Assays?
FAQ ID - 3445
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
Can the PAXgene RNA stabilization solution/blood mixture from the PAXgene Blood RNA Tube be disposed of by adding bleach?
FAQ ID - 3469
Can I scale up reagents if I want to use more sample with the MagAttract HMW DNA Kit (cat. no. 67563)?
FAQ ID - 3448
How can I calculate the number of bacterial cells that are present in a sample using the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3411
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
Can specific types of white blood cells be enriched from a PAXgene Blood RNA Tube prior to the RNA isolation?
FAQ ID - 3467
Can the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID - 3471
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
How long can the PAXgene Blood RNA tubes be kept frozen at –20°C or –70°C?
FAQ ID - 3463
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate DNA?
FAQ ID - 3466
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used with animal blood samples?
FAQ ID - 3461
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate viral RNA?
FAQ ID - 3465
Can I use DNA isolated from an AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3425
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
Why is the final heat denaturation step so important with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2987
What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA tissue protocols and QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2991
Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2983
Do you need to pre-treat food samples before DNA isolation using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2957
How can I desalt and concentrate a protein fraction by trichloroacetic acid (TCA) precipitation?
FAQ ID -2954
Do the samples require pretreatment before loading onto the instrument with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2982
Do tissue samples require pretreatment before loading onto the QIAsymphony SP for DNA extraction?
FAQ ID -2926
Do the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids contain inducible promoters?
FAQ ID -2904
How do you decide on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays to include on the pathway arrays and disease arrays?
FAQ ID -2913
How many mutations can I profile per sample on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2911
How many freeze-thaw cycles can the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits tolerate?
FAQ ID -2975
How can I estimate the size of my protein based on the length of the respective cDNA?
FAQ ID -2952
How can I precipitate genomic DNA using isopropanol?
FAQ ID -2953
How do I use the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2923
Can I use the Type-it CNV kits and Reference Assays for CNV studis in mice?
FAQ ID -2997
Can the Certal CHO Positive Control DNA be used to create a qPCR standard for relative quantification?
FAQ ID -2979
Can the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit be used to express entire IgGs?
FAQ ID -2966
Can I use lysates or tissue homogenates with the ELISArray kits?
FAQ ID -2905
Can I use TaqMan® Copy Number Assays from LIFE Technologies in combination with the Type-it CNV Probe kit?
FAQ ID -2999
Can I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with primary cells or macrophages or for injection into live animals?
FAQ ID -2902
Do I have to use an internal control with each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kit protocol run?
FAQ ID -2932
Do samples require pretreatment before they are loaded onto the QIAsymphony instrument?
FAQ ID -2931
Can the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen system be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID -2939
Do the ELISArray Kits work on species other than human, mouse or rat?
FAQ ID -2906
Does the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit contain an extraction control?
FAQ ID -2961
Is it possible to simultaneously isolate DNA and RNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2996
Is it possible to use templates with signal sequences with EasyXpress Disulfide E. coli Kits?
FAQ ID -2969
Is food DNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2959
Is it possible to introduce an affinity tag using the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit?
FAQ ID -2972
Is it possible to isolate DNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2995
On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated?
FAQ ID -2978
On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used?
FAQ ID -2973
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker?
FAQ ID -2900
Is it possible to use the native signal sequence of antibodies with EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2968
Is RNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2960
How much DNA does a bacterial cell contain?
FAQ ID -2947
Is there a risk of crosstalk from the FAM channel to the VIC channel if the residual DNA target is present in very high copy numbers?
FAQ ID -2980
How much DNA does a human cell contain?
FAQ ID -2948
How much RNA does a bacterial cell contain?
FAQ ID -2949
How many reactions can be performed with one QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2955
How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?
FAQ ID -2935
How should the samples be stored before purification of RNA with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2984
How much DNA and RNA can be expected from human blood cells?
FAQ ID -2950
How should the samples be stored before purification with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?
FAQ ID -2934
If a cycler from Applied Biosystems is used in combination with the Certal Residual DNA Detection Kit, should dye calibration for MAX be performed?
FAQ ID -2977
How much RNA does a typical mammalian cell contain?
FAQ ID -2946
How much sample is required for each well for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2908
How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2927
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
What is the QIAxcel Advanced System?
FAQ ID -2650
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
Is the QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2652
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?
FAQ ID -2657
What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?
FAQ ID -2666
What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?
FAQ ID -2674
Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
Why is 18S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) used as a housekeeping gene to normalize sample-to-sample, systematic variation in qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2675
Why is my no template control (NTC) real-time Ct value < 35 cycles in my qPCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2686
Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
Which DNA/RNA extraction kits were tested in combination with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2606
For the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC kit, does the Internal Control also control for the reverse transcription reaction?
FAQ ID -2601
What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
Following thermal cycling, reaction volume has evaporated from some of the wells of my qPCR assay plate. What should I do?
FAQ ID -2683
Do we have data on long term stability and storage of DNA purified on BioRobot M48?
FAQ ID -2611
During data analysis, how should the threshold be set in the Yellow channel on the Rotor-Gene Q cycler to analyze the Internal Control from the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit
FAQ ID -2607
How can I predict the percent qPCR signal due to contaminating DNA, for a given qPCR assay, and its matching NRT control?
FAQ ID -2688
How can I ensure that reaction volume is not lost due to evaporation during thermal cycling?
FAQ ID -2679
How can I determine whether amplification occurs from mRNA-derived cDNA or from genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -2687
How can I avoid or remove genomic DNA contamination from the total RNA preparation?
FAQ ID -2662
Do the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit contain ROX in the master mix?
FAQ ID -2605
Can the Internal Control DNA or RNA be added directly to the sample?
FAQ ID -2602
Are primers available that only detect mitochondrial DNA encoded genes and not nuclear genomic DNA encoded genes?
FAQ ID -2680
Do I need to run a standard curve before the actual PCR array experiment?
FAQ ID -2664
Does the amount of Internal Control to be spiked into the lysis buffer or lysate depend on the elution volume only?
FAQ ID -2604
May I try the data analysis tool without using your PCR array kit?
FAQ ID -2698
What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2669
Is the QuantiFast Multiplex PCR +R Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2653
Is the QuantiFast Probe PCR +ROX Vial Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2651
How do I determine the amplification efficiency of my qPCR assay?
FAQ ID -2694
How do I determine the linear dynamic range of my qPCR or qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2696
How do I create a workspace that is free of DNA contamination, prior to carrying out a qPCR experiment?
FAQ ID -2654
How does HotStart PCR help minimize nonspecific amplification events?
FAQ ID -2676
Is it good to pool multiple RNA replicates to detect expression changes that are consistently reproducible?
FAQ ID -2663
How important is the RNA purification process, for obtaining reliable qRT-PCR results?
FAQ ID -2655
3212 - What is the minimum size of DNA fragment that can be isolated with QIAamp DNA Mini kit?
3210 - Can the 4-16K Centrifuge be used with a 208 V outlet?
3211 - What is the maximum speed of the plate rotor 2 x 96 in the 4-16 or 4-16K?
3202 - Can GeneRead rRNA depletion kit be used to deplete rRNA from miRNA isolated using miRNeasy kit?
3299-Can Buffer ER from the Endofree Plasmid kits be used instead of the Buffer ETR in QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
3213 - How much ethanol should be added to Buffer AP3/E (renamed to Buffer AW1) and Buffer AW (renamed to Buffer AW2) in the DNeasy Plant kit?
3200 - What is the Maximum/Minimum amount of RNA that can be used with GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3201 - What quality of RNA can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3203 - Is the RNeasy MinElute cleanup kit required for the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3204 - How strict is the purification cut-off with GeneRead Size Selection kit?
3205 - Can GeneRead Library preparation kits be used on species other than human mouse and rat, for example, plant species and microbial species?
3206 - Can our GeneRead Library preparation kits be used with the SoLiD Platform?
3248 - What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase?
3254 - When using the Nextal Cubic Phase products how do I know in which phase the sample is? What will I see?
3255 - When using the NexTal Cubic Phase products, should I work with diluted or undiluted screens?
3227 - In which solution can I keep my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
3217 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
3225 - How pure should my protein be for the NexTal CubicPhase kits?
3292-How do I start using the NeXtal CubicPhase kits?
3295-What is the difference between SBTexcellerator HLA Core, Extended and Full Kits?
3240 - What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
3237 - I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible?
3233 - Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods.
3265 - Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
3298-Will the sequence of the QuantiFast Probe Assays be provided?
3262 - Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3263 - Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit?
3264 - Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
3241 - What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
3238 - What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
3239 - What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
3247 - What is the correct matrix to use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3245 - What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3243 - What does the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit contain?
3244 -What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
3231 - Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3232 - Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues?
3228 - Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3229 - Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers?
3236 - I use cultured cells as starting material. Can I also use the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit?
Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?
3261 - Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
3258 - Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3260 - Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
3259 - Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3249 - What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3296-Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
3252 - What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3256 - Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
3257 - Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
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