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Why should I use RT² SYBR Green Mastermix with RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2706
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Will pipetting error affect the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array results?
FAQ ID -2741
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Will pipetting error affect the miRNA qPCR Assay results?
FAQ ID -2728
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Why had my RT² SYBR Green Mastermix been working well in the past, but now does not seem to be?
FAQ ID -2717
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What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
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What MOI should I use for my cells?
FAQ ID -2770
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What RT² qPCR Primer Assays are available?
FAQ ID -2708
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What transfection reagents are compatible with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2764
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What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
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What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?
FAQ ID -2785
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What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
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What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
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What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
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What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
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What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
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What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
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What are the key parameters contributing to unwanted off-target effects in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2775
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What are the structures of the siRNA molecules used in RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2760
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What are the critical factors in designing the siRNA molecules to be used for RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2759
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Why is my EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay "failed" as indicated in the QC page of the data analysis Excel file?
FAQ ID -2734
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Why is the qRT-PCR reproducibility so critical when detecting gene expression knock down in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2774
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What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
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What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
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What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
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What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
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Can miScript miRNA qPCR Assays be used for pre-miRNA detection?
FAQ ID -2724
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Can miScript miRNA qPCR Assays detect single nucleotide difference between miRNAs?
FAQ ID -2723
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Do I need an internal methylated DNA reference in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array?
FAQ ID -2736
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Do I need the sequence specific miRNA primers in the RT step of the miRNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2725
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Do you always run samples in triplicates?
FAQ ID -2703
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Can you use stained (H & E) sections with RT² PreAMP cDNA Synthesis Kit?
FAQ ID -2722
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Does QIAGEN guarantee the performance of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2787
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Does this method with the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array detect methylation at specific CpG dinucleotides?
FAQ ID -2737
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Can I make stable cell lines with the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2763
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Is it acceptable to correct for transfection efficiency, when determining the level of gene expression knock down by an shRNA expression vector?
FAQ ID -2783
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How are the primers in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array designed?
FAQ ID -2735
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On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work?
FAQ ID -2719
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Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays?
FAQ ID -2747
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What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA?
FAQ ID -2786
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The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions?
FAQ ID -2750
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The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2766
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The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2767
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How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2742
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How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells in the miScript miRNA PCR array?
FAQ ID -2729
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How can RNA interference be used as a life science research tool?
FAQ ID -2756
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How can I be sure that the restriction enzyme digestion is complete in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR system?
FAQ ID -2731
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How can I identify the binding sites of my transcription factor using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2753
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How can I normalize my EpiTect ChIP results?
FAQ ID -2751
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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Can the EpiTect Methyl qPCR System technology reliably characterize heterogenous tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2732
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Can users insert custom transcriptional regulatory elements or promoters into the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2765
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Can you custom design the Epitect qPCR primers for the CpG island outside of the defined promoter region?
FAQ ID -2744
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Can I manually set the threshold line?
FAQ ID -2702
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Can I use your EpiTect One-Day kit with transcription factors?
FAQ ID -2752
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Are EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays applicable to FFPE samples?
FAQ ID -2733
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Can I obtain the sequence of the RT² qPCR Primer Assay that I purchased?
FAQ ID -2709
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Are there any unique elements that need to be incorporated into an shRNA expression vector?
FAQ ID -2772
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Can I use total RNA for the miRNA PCR Arrays or Assays?
FAQ ID -2726
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At what point can I stop and freeze my samples when using ChIP?
FAQ ID -2754
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Can I use the default PCR program to run EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays?
FAQ ID -2745
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Can I use your EpiTect ChIP system in a RNA study?
FAQ ID -2748
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Can I transform the Cignal Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2762
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Can I reliably detect intermediately methylated DNA with EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array technology?
FAQ ID -2738
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How many experiments can I do with the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2769
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How many housekeeping genes are included in each PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2704
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Can I use fluorescence microscopy to assess shRNA plasmid transfection efficiency in my model cell line of interest, when using a vector expressing a GFP reporter gene?
FAQ ID -2782
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What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?
FAQ ID -2721
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How reliable are the results from the miScript Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2730
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What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2720
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How do you determine the efficiency using the PCR array?
FAQ ID -2701
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How do I choose EpiTect ChIP-grade antibodies?
FAQ ID -2746
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How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR?
FAQ ID -2749
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How does QIAGEN control the quality of the RT² qPCR Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -2711
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How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work?
FAQ ID -2779
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How do I choose between the DNA-based Cignal Reporter Assays and the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays?
FAQ ID -2761
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What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?
FAQ ID — 3394
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Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use?
FAQ ID — 3395
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What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
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3326 - Which QIAcube standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet?
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3327 - How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip-adapter be changed on the QIAcube?
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3328 - Can the Sample Tubes CB and the Sample Tubes RB be used interchangeably?
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3329 - When using REPLI-g, if the starting material is a single sorted cell, could mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) be amplified?
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3330 - Is there any contamination from E. coli genomic DNA in the polymerase provided with the Repli-G Single Cell Kit?
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3331 - Should the REPLI-g amplified mtDNA be cleaned up before sequencing?
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3332 - Is there a method that can distinguish between non-amplified DNA and REPLI-g amplified DNA?
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3333 - When using REPLI-g, what is the purpose of the DTT added to the denaturation buffer in the cells/blood protocol?
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What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays?
FAQ ID — 3399
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What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
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Can I use the Microbial DNA-Free Water and Microbial qPCR Mastermix if they have been opened more than 3 times?
FAQ ID — 3398
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What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3393
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
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3352 - What are the size ranges of Ni-NTA particles?
FAQ ID - 3352
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3353 - What is the composition of the elution buffer in the Ni-NTA Fast Start Kit?
FAQ ID - 3353
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3351 - What is the upper limit for protein size that can bind to Ni-NTA agarose resin?
FAQ ID - 3351
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3354 - What type and amount of resin is packed into the Ni-NTA Spin columns from the Ni-NTA Spin Kit?
FAQ ID - 3354
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3341 - How are the EpiTect DNA controls produced and tested?
FAQ - 3341
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3344 - What is the difference between the EpiTect Plus DNA Bisulfite kit compared to the classic kit?
FAQ - 3344
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3345 - What is the difference between the high and low concentration EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion protocol?
FAQ - 3345
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Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable?
FAQ ID - 3391
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3311 - Can QuickLyse miniprep kits be used with QIAVac 24 Plus?
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3312 - For DirectPrep 96 miniprep, is it possible to use a half plate and save the other half for later prep?
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3313 - What is the endotoxin level for the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
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3314-What is the concentration of RNase A sold separately?
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CAn I use milk or other liquids with the DNeasy mericon Food kit? What volume would I use?
FAQ ID - 3350
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3316-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiFast Probe Assay?
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Does salt concentration in the food matter when using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3346
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Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA?
FAQ ID - 3347
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When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3348
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Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit?
FAQ ID - 3349
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Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K?
FAQ ID - 3362
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What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
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Are QIAcube reagent bottles (cat. no. 990393) autoclavable? What type of plastic are they made of?
FAQ ID - 3369
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How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be transported?
FAQ ID - 3375
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Can I buy the gDNA eliminator plates supplied in your RNeasy Plus 96 kit separately?
FAQ ID - 3389
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What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
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Can I buy the gDNA eliminator columns supplied in your RNeasy Plus kits separately?
FAQ ID - 3390
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3323 - Do you have a protocol for the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID - 3323
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3340 - Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
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3325 - What are the catalog numbers for the packing materials for the QIAcube?
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3324 - Do you have a protocol for the QIAprep Spin M13 Kit on the QIAcube?
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3335 - Can I use the DNA directly from enzymatic reaction for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit (cat. no. 59104)?
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3336 - Can I use the linearized DNA for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit?
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3337 - Which method is used for QIAGEN sequencing service?
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3339 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) negatively impact subsequent NGS sequencing?
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3338 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) have 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate groups?
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3342 - How is the unmethylated unconverted EpiTect DNA control to be used?
FAQ - 3342
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3343 - Why is it difficult to quantify DNA using UV/Vis spectroscopy and fluorescence methods following EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion? How best do you quantify it?
FAQ - 3343
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3315-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiTect Primer Assay (200)?
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3322 - What is the concentration of the reconstituted miScript Primer Assay (100) and miScript Precursor Assay (100) tubes?
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3317 - Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from cell cultures using the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit?
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3318 - What guidelines should I follow in designing primers for use with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
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3320 - What is the sensitivity of the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
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3318 - What is the preferred amplicon size for performing PCR on DNA amplified with the EpiTect Whole Bisulfitome Kit?
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3321 - What is the purpose of the C. elegans miR-39 spike-in control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
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Can I buy the RNeasy Mini columns, RNeasy MinElute columns, RNeasy Midi columns or the RNeasy Maxi columns separately?
FAQ ID - 3388
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Do you have data to show lowest dropout rate with Repli-G WTA Single Cells kit?
FAQ ID - 3392
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3305 - What is the minimal amount of starting material required for using the SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
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3306 - What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3304 - What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3310 - Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3308 - Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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3309 - Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
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What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
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What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
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3300 - Can isopropanol or methanol be used in place of ethanol in RNeasy kits?
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3301 - Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
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I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do?
FAQ ID - 3363
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3302 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
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Do you sell CoralLoad dye separately?
FAQ ID - 3368
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3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit?
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3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
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3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
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3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware?
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