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What is the stability of the REPLI-g MDA product?
FAQ ID -693
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What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
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What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
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What is the smallest sample size that can be used with RNeasy Mini Kits?
FAQ ID -485
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What is the smallest and the largest protein that you tested for expression with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1218
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What is the smallest amount of DNA I can put into a 50 ul REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -663
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What is the small band below my fragment of interest on an agarose gel after DNA cleanup using QIAquick?
FAQ ID -148
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What is the size of the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1245
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What is the size of genomic DNA that is obtained with QIAGEN Genomic-tips?
FAQ ID -142
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What is the size, charge and isoelectric point of the DHFR protein in the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -470
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What is the shelf-life of TopTaq DNA Polymerase and Master Mix?
FAQ ID -1743
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What is the shelf-life of my QIAGEN Kit?
FAQ ID -651
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What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
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What is the shelf life of unused PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3633
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What is the shelf life of the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3651
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What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
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What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3374
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 5’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3672
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What is the sequence of the QIAseq miRNA NGS 3’ Adapter?
FAQ ID - 3671
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What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
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What is the sequence of the index in the GeneRead DNA Adapter I Set 1plex (catalog number 180912)?
FAQ ID - 3561
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What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
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What is the sensitivity limitation for pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2840
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What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
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What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
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What is the sample throughput of Pyrosequencing systems?
FAQ ID -2215
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What is the sample input volume for the REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3545
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What is the sample input volume for REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3557
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What is the safest procedure to add FTA punches to the PCR reactions of the Investigator IDplex GO! Kit?
FAQ ID -3096
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What is the run time for the BioSprint 96 DNA Blood protocol on the BioSprint 96 instrument?
FAQ ID -622
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What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2718
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3514
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3050
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What is the RT-PCR performance of RNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to RNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2538
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What is the RNase A concentration and composition of Buffer P1?
FAQ ID -198
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What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
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What is the resin in the Qproteome Murine Albumin and Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kits?
FAQ ID -1034
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What is the residuals plot in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2199
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What is the required amount of input material per sample for the EpiTect Hi-C Kit?
FAQ ID -
143063
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What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
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What is the recommended sample size for use with the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1756
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What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
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What is the recommended read length for libraries prepared using the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3668
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What is the recommended range of cells for the miScript Single Cell qPCR Kit?
FAQ ID - 3565
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What is the recommended incubation time to stabilize tissue RNA in RNAprotect?
FAQ ID -647
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What is the recommended culture medium for the QIAprep System?
FAQ ID -154
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What is the recommended amplicon size for CpG assays?
FAQ ID -2825
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What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2716
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What is the recipe for SOC medium?
FAQ ID -798
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What is the recipe for LB?
FAQ ID -212
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What is the recipe for 2x YT?
FAQ ID -213
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What is the recipe for 1x PBS solution?
FAQ ID -1030
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What is the reason for split peaks appearing in between dispensations on my pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2881
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What is the reason for signals ceasing in the middle of a pyrosequencing run?
FAQ ID -2875
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What is the reason for a high substrate peak in the pyrosequencing pyrogram?
FAQ ID -2879
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What is the reagent in the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3632
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What is the range of melting temperatures for the QuantiTect Primer Assay amplicons in the dissociation curve?
FAQ ID -1079
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What is the range of elution volumes on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1908
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What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
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What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt?
FAQ ID - 3365
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What is the QIAxcel Advanced System?
FAQ ID -2650
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What is the pyrosequencing data exchange tool for?
FAQ ID -2864
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What is the PyroMark Q96 Data Converter?
FAQ ID -2868
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What is the purpose of the unmethylated and unconverted control DNA of the EpiTect PCR Control DNA Set?
FAQ ID -2007
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What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
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What is the purity of nucleic acids extracted with the PAXgene Tissue kits?
FAQ ID -2533
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What is the protein yield when using the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1201
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What is the protein loading capacity per column of the Qproteome Albumin/IgG Depletion Kit?
FAQ ID -1090
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What is the proper way to turn on or turn off the EZ1 instrument?
FAQ ID -870
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What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
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What is the processing time for 96 normalizations with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2237
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What is the principle of the REPLI-g FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -1753
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What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
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What is the principle behind the DNA Polymerase in the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2003
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What is the principle behind Effectene Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -184
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3527
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What is the pipetting throughput of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3525
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What is the pH value of QIAGEN's Nuclease-Free Water?
FAQ ID -1290
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3051
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What is the PCR performance of DNA purified from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) and PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue compared to DNA from snap frozen or formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3618
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What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
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What is the part number for O-rings for QIAsymphony SP and AS instruments? How often should the O-rings be replaced?
FAQ ID -3055
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What is the origin of replication and the plasmid copy number of the pQE vectors?
FAQ ID -338
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What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3015
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What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3028
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What is the optimal range of PCR fragment sizes for normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2247
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What is the optimal order of pipetting artus® PCR samples?
FAQ ID -1397
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What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2393
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What is the optimal DNA input and cycling conditions with the Investigator IDplex kit?
FAQ ID -2404
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What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
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What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
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What is the nature of the heterologous Internal Amplification Control and Positive Control in the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2543
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What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing?
FAQ ID - 3366
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What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
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What is the most reliable transfection reagent for delivering shRNA plasmids and siRNA to cells in culture?
FAQ ID -2777
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What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
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What is the minimum sample volume required for the QIAxcel System and QIAxcel Advanced?
FAQ ID -1852
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What is the minimum number of siRNAs per order? If I order 40 siRNAs, can I get those on 2 plates?
FAQ ID -1468
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What is the minimum number of samples that can be extracted on a BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3076
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What is the minimum number of cells that can be efficiently processed with the QIAamp DNA Mini and QIAamp Blood Mini kits and what is the expected yield?
FAQ ID - 3516
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What is the minimum number of cells or minimum amount of tissue that can be efficiently processed with the RNeasy mini kit?
FAQ ID - 3519
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What is the minimum number of assays that can be ordered on QuantiTect Primer Assay Plates?
FAQ ID -2109
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What is the minimum incubation time required when using the PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER?
FAQ ID -3029
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What is the minimum guaranteed shelf-life of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tubes (100) (catalog no. 768115)?
FAQ ID - 3696
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit?
FAQ ID -432
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What is the minimum elution volume when using the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -428
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What is the minimum amount of starting material that can be used with the RNeasy Plus Micro and AllPrep DNA/RNA Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -1750
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What is the minimum amount of genomic DNA required for analysis using EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2739
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What is the meaning of the CT value?
FAQ ID -1525
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What is the meaning of the abbreviations NDT and CDT and what are the differences?
FAQ ID -2841
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell RNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3549
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What is the maximum/minimum amount of DNA that can be used with REPLI-g Single Cell DNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3537
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What is the maximum volume of RNA in solution that can be used with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1616
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID - 3604
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What is the maximum tissue size that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue Container?
FAQ ID -2518
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What is the maximum size of tissue that can be fixed in a PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3024
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What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
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What is the maximum number of targets that can be amplified per reaction with the QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2145
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What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
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What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
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What is the maximum number of cells that can be used with the AllPrep RNA/Protein Kit ?
FAQ ID -1208
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What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
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What is the maximum number of available sample indexes?
FAQ ID - 3665
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What is the maximum lifetime of the QIAGEN rotor for the Centrifuge 4 and 4K?
-16
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What is the maximum DNA yield from forensic samples processed with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2028
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What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3014
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What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3027
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What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2645
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What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
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What is the maximum binding capacity of RNeasy spin columns?
FAQ ID -290
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What is the maximum amount of starting material that can be processed with the RNeasy Micro Kit?
FAQ ID -426
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What is the maximum amount of RNA that can be used for amplification with the QuantiTect Whole Transcriptome Kit?
FAQ ID -1591
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What is the lowest elution volume that can be used with QIAprecipitator Midi and Maxi Modules?
FAQ ID -307
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What is the longest period you recommend to leave out the dilute HiPerFect HTS at RT before use?
FAQ ID -2560
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What is the longest fragment that was cloned with the pQE UA Cloning Vector?
-30
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What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
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What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
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What is the length of the MDA whole genome amplification product?
FAQ ID -690
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What is the largest plasmid size that can be purified using the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1752
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What is the largest PCR amplicon that can be amplified with the HotStar HiFidelity Polymerase Kit?
FAQ ID -1047
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What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
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What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
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What is the intended use of the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH kit?
FAQ ID -2273
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What is the integrity of RNA from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3046
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What is the input sample volume when using the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH kit?
FAQ ID -2272
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What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
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What is the genotype of the EZ Competent Cells?
FAQ ID -157
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What is the general sensitivity level of the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -731
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What is the fixation reagent of PAXgene Tissue FIX?
FAQ ID - 3601
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What is the fixation method used in the PAXgene Tissue System?
FAQ ID -3019
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What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
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What is the fidelity of TopTaq DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1739
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What is the expected yield of genomic DNA isolated from bacteria with the DNeasy Blood & Tissue or QIAamp DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -632
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What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
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What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes IVD?
FAQ ID - 3511
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What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3383
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What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3081
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What is the expected level of endotoxins in plasmid DNA purified with QIAGEN Plasmid kits, QIAfilter Plasmid kits and HiSpeed Plasmid purification kits?
FAQ ID -3082
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What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood when using the QIAsymphony, QIAcube, and salting-out precipitation method?
FAQ ID - 3510
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What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3382
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What is the expected ccfDNA yield from plasma generated from 10 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3637
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What is the expected amplicon size when using the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2544
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What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3396
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What is the error rate of HotStar HiFidelity DNA Polymerase?
FAQ ID -1048
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What is the enzyme used in the whole transcriptome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3554
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What is the enzyme used in the whole genome amplification step?
FAQ ID - 3542
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What is the enzyme used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -704
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What is the Energy Mix in the EasyXpress Kits?
FAQ ID -846
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What is the elution volume for all CE-marked artus QS-Rotor-Gene Q assays?
FAQ ID -2432
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What is the effect of using amounts of input material per sample that fall outside the recommended range?
FAQ ID -
143064
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What is the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool made of?
FAQ ID -1106
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What is the dynamic range of detection of the LiquiChip Reader?
FAQ ID -1158
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What is the DNA integrity from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3047
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What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3579
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What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
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What is the difference of the sequence of a miScript miRNA Inhibitor and miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2253
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What is the difference between various FlexiTube siRNAs listed for the same target gene, and which one should I choose?
FAQ ID -1206
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What is the difference between TurboCapture Microplate Holders Type A and Type B?
FAQ ID -1038
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What is the difference between the QIAamp UCP DNA Micro Kit (cat. no. 56204) and RNeasy UCP Kits (cat. no. 73934) and non-UCP QIAGEN purification kits?
FAQ ID - 3715
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What is the difference between the QIAamp MinElute Virus Spin and the MinElute Virus Vacuum Kit?
FAQ ID -295
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What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
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What is the difference between the Influenza Master and the Influenza H1 Master of the artus Infl./H1 LC/RG RT-PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2207
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What is the difference between the Fc specific versions of your secondary antibody BioMag particles and the non-specific?
FAQ ID -275
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What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
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What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
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What is the difference between RT² Profiler PCR Array and RT² Profiler PCR Array PLUS version?
FAQ ID - 3685
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What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
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What is the difference between QIAGEN Protease and QIAGEN Proteinase K provided in various QIAamp Kits?
FAQ ID -761
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What is the difference between probability and typicality in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2203
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What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control?
FAQ ID — 3397
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What is the difference between Ni-NTA Agarose and Ni-NTA Superflow?
FAQ ID -764
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What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
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What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
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What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
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What is the difference between disruption and homogenization in the RNeasy System?
FAQ ID -139
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What is the difference between Buffers RLT and RLT Plus?
FAQ ID -1043
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What is the difference between BSA-free and BSA-containing RGS-His Antibody?
FAQ ID -569
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What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
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What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
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What is the detection limit of the Rotor-Gene and QuantiFast Multiplex RT-PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2144
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What is the detection limit of the QuantiFast Kits for real-time PCR?
FAQ ID -1432
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What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
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What is the detection limit for the Investigator Quantiplex Kit?
FAQ ID -2572
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What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
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What is the delivery time for QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1142
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What is the dead volume of the cartridges in PyroMark Q48?
FAQ ID - 3719
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What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
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What is the correct matrix to use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
FAQ ID -2395
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What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator IDplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3016
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What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -3029
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What is the correct matrix to use with ESSplex Plus?
FAQ ID -2647
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What is the correct matrix and filter/settings to be used on the Investigator ID plex kit?
FAQ ID -2405
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What is the concentration of the primers in a reaction using the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -850
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What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
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What is the concentration of the Gentra RNase A that is used with the Autopure and Puregene protocols?
FAQ ID -3083
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What is the concentration of the different Proteinase K solutions sold by QIAGEN?
FAQ ID -3084
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What is the concentration of SureENTRY Transduction Reagent?
FAQ ID - 3708
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What is the concentration of PyroMark Control Oligo?
FAQ ID -2846
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What is the composition of the siRNA resuspension & annealing buffer?
FAQ ID -522
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What is the composition of the QIAGEN Multiplex PCR Buffer?
FAQ ID -289
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What is the composition of the QIAGEN 10x PCR Buffer in Taq- and HotStarTaq DNA Polymerase Kits?
FAQ ID -606
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What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
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What is the composition of RBC Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2808
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What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent?
FAQ ID - 3355
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What is the composition of Protein Precipitation Solution?
FAQ ID -2810
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What is the composition of PBS?
FAQ ID -361
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What is the composition of gDNA Eliminator Solution?
FAQ ID -2799
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What is the composition of FlexiPlate siRNA buffer?
FAQ ID -1361
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What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits?
FAQ ID - 3387
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What is the composition of elution buffer QLE in the QuickLyse Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -1356
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What is the composition of elution buffer ATE in the QIAamp DNA Investigator kit, QIAamp DNA FFPE Tissue kit and the QIAamp Fast DNA Stool Mini kit?
FAQ ID -3122
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What is the composition of DNA Hydration Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2813
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What is the composition of Cell Suspension Solution?
FAQ ID -2811
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What is the composition of Cell Lysis Solution?
FAQ ID -2809
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What is the composition of buffer TE?
FAQ ID -416
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What is the composition of buffer STE?
FAQ ID -415
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What is the composition of Buffer S3?
FAQ ID -2788
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What is the composition of Buffer RWT?
FAQ ID -2798
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What is the composition of Buffer RW1?
FAQ ID -2796
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What is the composition of Buffer RPE?
FAQ ID -2797
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What is the composition of Buffer RLT?
FAQ ID -2793
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What is the composition of Buffer RLT plus?
FAQ ID -2794
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What is the composition of Buffer RLC?
FAQ ID -2795
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What is the composition of Buffer RDD?
FAQ ID -2800
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What is the composition of buffer QN?
FAQ ID -414
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What is the composition of buffer QF?
FAQ ID -413
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What is the composition of buffer QC?
FAQ ID -412
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What is the composition of buffer QBT?
FAQ ID -411
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What is the composition of Buffer PKD?
FAQ ID -2801
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What is the composition of Buffer PE?
FAQ ID -1691
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What is the composition of Buffer PB?
FAQ ID -2791
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What is the composition of buffer P3?
FAQ ID -418
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What is the composition of Buffer P2?
FAQ ID -203
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What is the composition of buffer OW2?
FAQ ID -419
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What is the composition of buffer OL2?
FAQ ID -424
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What is the composition of buffer OEB?
FAQ ID -420
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What is the composition of buffer OCL?
FAQ ID -422
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What is the composition of buffer OCD?
FAQ ID -423
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What is the composition of buffer OBB?
FAQ ID -421
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What is the composition of Buffer N3?
FAQ ID -767
View
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
View
What is the composition of buffer FWB2?
FAQ ID -417
View
What is the composition of Buffer FRN?
FAQ ID -2802
View
What is the composition of Buffer FG3?
FAQ ID -356
View
What is the composition of Buffer ETR?
FAQ ID -2789
View
What is the composition of Buffer ER? Is it available separately?
FAQ ID -571
View
What is the composition of Buffer EB?
FAQ ID -199
View
What is the composition of Buffer BB?
FAQ ID -2790
View
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
View
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
View
What is the composition of Buffer APP?
FAQ ID -2804
View
What is the composition of Buffer APL?
FAQ ID -2803
View
What is the composition of Buffer ALO?
FAQ ID -2805
View
What is the composition of buffer AE?
FAQ ID -730
View
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
View
What is the composition and size of the LiquiChip Beads?
FAQ ID -475
View
What is the composition and concentration of Glycogen Solution in Gentra Puregene Kits?
FAQ ID -2812
View
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
View
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
View
What is the cell number range one can use with the FastLane Cell cDNA Kit for real-time RT-PCR?
FAQ ID -782
View
What is the blood draw volume of the PAXgene Blood ccfDNA Tube
FAQ ID - 3631
View
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy MinElute Cleanup Kit column?
FAQ ID -430
View
What is the binding capacity of the RNeasy Micro Kit column?
FAQ ID -427
View
What is the binding capacity of the Ni-NTA Superflow Cartridges?
FAQ ID -1603
View
What is the biggest protein that can be synthesized with the EasyXpress Protein Synthesis System?
FAQ ID -601
View
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
View
What is the best approach for determining where to set the CT threshold when you have >15 samples? Is it best to go through all of them, looking for a range of best fit, and then just choose one value that fits all of them?
FAQ ID -2705
View
What is the batch size of the QIASymphony Rotor-Gene Q and how many PCR´s can be processed per assay module run?
FAQ ID -2433
View
What is the basic technology behind the Strep-tag Protein Purification System?
FAQ ID -740
View
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
View
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -2534
View
What is the average RNA yield from PAXgene Tissue fixed, paraffin-embedded (PFPE) tissue?
FAQ ID -3045
View
What is the average molecular weight of a siRNA, and how do I convert uM to ug values?
FAQ ID -388
View
What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
FAQ ID -2374
View
What is the average DNA concentration obtained using the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -721
View
What is the average amount of DNA and RNA present in 1 ml normal serum?
FAQ ID -635
View
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
View
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Single Cell qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3578
View
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
View
What is the amplicon length of the PyroMark CpG LINE assay?
-1
View
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Mutation Detect PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2064
View
What is the advantage of using the Type-it Microsatellite PCR Kit?
FAQ ID -2059
View
What is the advantage of running an analytical gel with fractions of my plasmid preparation?
FAQ ID -769
View
What is the advantage of EpiTect MethyLight PCR Kits over QuantiTect Probe PCR Kits for methylation studies?
FAQ ID -2010
View
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)?
FAQ ID - 3372
View
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
View
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
View
What is the accuracy of the high-speed dispensing system of the BioRobot Universal?
FAQ ID - 3523
View
What is the acceptable number of reads per sample per miRNA sequencing run?
FAQ ID - 3673
View
What is the acceptable maximum g force for centrifugation of Xa Removal Resin?
FAQ ID -320
View
What is the "seed sequence" of a miRNA?
FAQ ID -2262
View
What is RNA interference (RNAi)?
FAQ ID -2755
View
What is REPLI-g whole genome amplification?
FAQ ID -654
View
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
View
What is Q-Bond used in the QIAGEN Fast Cycling PCR and QuantiFast Kits?
FAQ ID -1554
View
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
View
What is MOI?
FAQ ID -2768
View
What is miRNA*? Do I need to consider this in my profiling experiment?
FAQ ID -2179
View
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
View
What is included in the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids shipment?
FAQ ID -2785
View
What is included in a PyroMark Custom Assay?
FAQ ID -2815
View
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
View
What is in the elution buffer in the PAXgene Bone Marrow RNA kit?
FAQ ID -2511
View
What is elution Buffer ATE of the QIAsymphony DNA Investigator Kit?
FAQ ID -2029
View
What is a quenched FRET assay?
FAQ ID -542
View
What is a QuantiTect Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -1141
View
What is a QIAshredder? Is it sufficient for complete disruption and homogenization of my tissue sample?
FAQ ID -631
View
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
View
What is a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2249
View
What is a miScript Precursor Assay?
FAQ ID -2214
View
What is a homogeneous LiquiChip assay?
FAQ ID -476
View
What is a good starting amount of template DNA for PCR with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2005
View
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
View
What instrument can I use for the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2311
View
What information is required to reorder specific siRNAs from a siRNA Set in FlexiPlate format?
FAQ ID -1463
View
What information is provided with FlexiPlate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -1363
View
What information about my gene or siRNA do I need to order FlexiPlate siRNA?
FAQ ID -1365
View
What if only one heater shaker is available?
FAQ ID -
143764
View
What has to be done to a RNA sample before loading it onto an Agilent Bioanalyzer?
FAQ ID -528
View
What happens when using EpiTect MethyLight Assays on only partially bisulfite converted DNA template?
FAQ ID -2009
View
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
View
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
View
What happens if I spin my lysate on the RNeasy Spin Columns at maximum speed?
FAQ ID -514
View
What happens if a tissue sample larger than 20 x 20 x 20 mm is used for fixation with the PAXgene Tissue FIX Container (50 ml)?
FAQ ID -3025
View
What format are the EasyXtal 15-well tools?
FAQ ID -2219
View
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
View
What file format and layout do I need to upload my data into the PCR Array Data Analysis software?
FAQ ID -2700
View
What factors determine if denatured proteins accumulate underneath, or inside the gel of the MaXtract Low and High Density Tubes?
FAQ ID -1312
View
What EZ1 DNA Investigator protocol is recommended for very precious samples?
FAQ ID -1154
View
What extraction procedure should I use for the therascreen EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2313
View
What epitopes do the Anti-His Conjugates and Anti-His Antibodies recognize?
FAQ ID -170
View
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
View
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
View
What else do I need to complete an experiment using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2889
View
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
View
What effect does homogenization have on DNA yield and integrity when using AllPrep DNA/RNA Kits?
FAQ ID -1751
View
What dyes are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2288
View
What downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified using the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3506
View
What downstream applications can I use the eluates from the QIAsymphony DSP AXpH DNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2275
View
What does transcript variant mean when searching for specific QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -1137
View
What does the RT² qPCR Primer Assay product information mean when it says that it recognizes another transcript of the same gene?
FAQ ID -2712
View
What does the resuspension buffer, Buffer BG4, in the PAXgene Blood DNA kit contain?
FAQ ID - 3501
View
What does the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit contain?
FAQ ID -2391
View
What does the Investigator IDplex Plus Kit contain?
FAQ ID -3013
View
What does the Investigator IDplex Kit contain?
FAQ ID -2402
View
What does the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit contain?
FAQ ID -3026
View
What does the ESSplex Plus kit contain?
FAQ ID -2644
View
What does QIAGEN use for a positive control in precursor detection experiments?
FAQ ID -2212
View
What does PAXgene Tissue STABILIZER contain?
FAQ ID - 3513
View
What does PAXgene Tissue FIX contain?
FAQ ID -3020
View
What does a typical EpiTect Methyl qPCR Assay or Array include?
FAQ ID -2740
View
What does 'QIAGEN Certified Solution' for Protein Crystallization mean?
FAQ ID -1121
View
What do you suggest to prevent degradation of RNA isolated from tissue with high amounts of RNases using RNeasy?
FAQ ID -942
View
What do you recommend for the cleanup of genomic DNA (gDNA)?
FAQ ID -618
View
What do you recommend for isolating RNA from more than 100 mg of plant tissue?
FAQ ID -570
View
What do you mean by “Quantification of locus representation” in REPLI-g WGA product?
FAQ ID -698
View
What do the GTIN, UDI and REF abbreviations mean on the label of any QIAGEN box?
FAQ ID - 3697
View
What do I need to provide when ordering a miScript Target Protector?
FAQ ID -2251
View
What do I need to complete a RT² qPCR Primer Assay?
FAQ ID -2707
View
What do I need in order to set up an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2757
View
What do I have to do if precipitates are visible in the lysis buffer (well 1 of the reagent cartridge [RCB])?
FAQ ID -1568
View
What do I have to consider if I am using the Applied Biosystems SDS software version 1.2.3 in order to run an Investigator Quantiplex Pro reaction?
FAQ ID - 3731
View
What do I have to consider if I am using Applied Biosystems SDS software version 1.2.3 to run an Investigator Quantiplex reaction?
FAQ ID -2570
View
What do I do if I get amplification in my no template control (NTC) with the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2298
View
What do I do if I cannot see amplification in the FAM channel in my KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2297
View
What disposables are required for nucleic acid isolations on the BioRobot EZ1?
FAQ ID -1246
View
What Disinfectant Solution do you recommend for the BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -809
View
What detection reagents (reporter fluorophores) do you recommend for the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -480
View
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
FAQ ID -2337
View
What dedicated QIAcube Connect kits are available?
FAQ ID - 141504
View
What data documentation does QIAGEN's Sequencing Service provide for customers?
FAQ ID -832
View
What criteria should one use in choosing between siRNA versus shRNA for their studies?
FAQ ID -2771
View
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
View
What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
View
What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
View
What controls should be used for normalizing miRNA real-time PCR data obtained with the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1596
View
What controls are used in the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits to ensure reliable results?
FAQ ID -2291
View
What concentration should be used for the sequencing primer in pyrosequencing?
FAQ ID -2826
View
What cell lines have been tested with the Qproteome Plasma Membrane Protein Kit?
FAQ ID -1205
View
What cell lines have been tested with the Fastlane Cell cDNA Kit?
FAQ ID -1175
View
What cell lines can I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2891
View
What cell line does QIAGEN use for quality control testing of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2885
View
What can I use to isolate RNA smaller than 200 nucleotides?
FAQ ID -115
View
What can I do when the DNA pellet prepared with QIAGEN Plasmid Kits has been overdried?
FAQ ID -572
View
What can be used to validate results obtained with the QIAseq miRNA Sequencing System?
FAQ ID - 3675
View
What can be used as an alternative to the A260 measurement for quantification of small amounts of RNA and DNA?
FAQ ID -728
View
What can be the reason for low DNA yields after normalization with the SeqTarget System?
FAQ ID -2239
View
What can be done if the protein pellet does not solubilize completely using the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -1580
View
What can be done if lower and upper alignment markers used with the QIAxcel System or QIAxcel Advanced are not aligned correctly?
FAQ ID -1834
View
What buffer should be used to dilute cDNA made using the miScript Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -1601
View
What buffer conditions give the best resolution for agarose gel electrophoresis?
FAQ ID -2256
View
What blocking reagents do you recommend for chemiluminescent detection using Penta-, Tetra-, and RGS-His antibodies?
FAQ ID -1093
View
What batch sizes can be selected with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2491
View
What are your recommendations for PCR template preparation for use with the EasyXpress Insect Kit II?
FAQ ID -1221
View
What are your recommendations for cotransfecting several plasmids?
FAQ ID -124
View
What are typical yields of bisulfite converted DNA when using the EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kits?
FAQ ID -2408
View
What are the yield and integrity of nucleic acids isolated from blocks of PAXgene Tissue fixed, cryo-embedded (PFCE) tissue?
FAQ ID - 3613
View
What are the typical yields obtained from Buccal swabs on BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -3071
View
What are the turnaround times for FlexiPlate siRNA orders?
FAQ ID -1478
View
What are the Tms of PCR products obtained using the miScript System?
FAQ ID -1599
View
What are the temperature ramp rates of the LightCycler® (LC), the Rotor-Gene® (RG) and the ABI PRISM® PCR instruments (TM) for artus kits?
FAQ ID -1510
View
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
View
What are the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2784
View
What are the structures of the siRNA molecules used in RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2760
View
What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products?
FAQ ID — 3394
View
What are the storage conditions for the mericon Assay kits?
FAQ ID -2540
View
What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
View
What are the starting volumes of homogenate for RNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1939
View
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
View
What are the sequences of the FlexiTube siRNAs?
FAQ ID -851
View
What are the restriction sites of the pDrive Vector in the QIAGEN PCR Cloning Kit?
FAQ ID -160
View
What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
FAQ ID -2355
View
What are the recommended storage conditions for the QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit and its components?
FAQ ID -1077
View
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
View
What are the recommended culture and buffer volumes for a very low-copy plasmid?
FAQ ID -168
View
What are the new features of the EasyXpress Insect Kit II compared to the original Protein Synthesis Insect kit?
FAQ ID -1220
View
What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?
FAQ ID -2657
View
What are the most commonly used protease inhibitors?
FAQ ID -53
View
What are the molecular weights of proteins in the 6xHis Protein Ladder?
FAQ ID -169
View
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
View
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
View
What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3393
View
What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
View
What are the maximum culture volumes to use with the QIAGEN Plasmid Midi or Maxi Kit?
FAQ ID -167
View
What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2438
View
What are the main differences between Rotor-Gene and QuantiTect or QuantiFast PCR Kits?
FAQ ID -2119
View
What are the main differences between other magnetic beads and the BioMag particles?
FAQ ID -272
View
What are the labels of the probe which is used in the Internal Control Assay for detection of the IC?
FAQ ID -2449
View
What are the key parameters contributing to unwanted off-target effects in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2775
View
What are the key factors for success in an RNAi experiment?
FAQ ID -2758
View
What are the ideal and the largest PCR amplicon sizes when using the EpiTect MSP Kit?
FAQ ID -2004
View
What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?
FAQ ID -2674
View
What are the features of the new PyroMark Q96 ID software 2.5?
FAQ ID -2867
View
What are the features of the expression vector used for QIAgenes Insect/Mammalia?
FAQ ID -2050
View
What are the features of PyroMark CpG Assays e.g. in terms of design, validation?
FAQ ID -2821
View
What are the features and benefits of the QIAexpress 6xHis Tag System?
FAQ ID -193
View
What are the expected yields of total RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1942
View
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
View
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3481
View
What are the expected PCR results when using EpiTect Control DNA on untreated or bisulfite-converted DNA?
FAQ ID -2011
View
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
View
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -1919
View
What are the expected DNA yields from different tissues using the QIAamp DNA Mini Kit? 8
FAQ ID -45
View
What are the expected average DNA yields from plant extractions on the BioSprint 96?
FAQ ID -771
View
What are the excitation and emission wavelengths of the reporter and classification lasers of the LiquiChip Instrument?
FAQ ID -479
View
What are the dissociation constants for the Anti-His Antibodies?
FAQ ID -385
View
What are the dimensions of the TissueLyser LT?
FAQ ID -2545
View
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAsymphony SP System?
FAQ ID -1901
View
What are the dimensions and weight of the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1407
View
What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2358
View
What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?
FAQ ID -2666
View
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry compared to PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
View
What are the differences between MDA and DOP/PEP methods of Whole Genome Amplification?
FAQ ID -665
View
What are the critical factors in designing the siRNA molecules to be used for RNAi studies?
FAQ ID -2759
View
What are the corresponding QIAGEN names for former Biotage instruments?
FAQ ID -2285
View
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
View
What are the compatibilities of different reagents with Ni-NTA matrices?
FAQ ID -49
View
What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2669
View
What are the changes of PyroMark Assay Design Software Version 2.0 compared to 1.0?
FAQ ID -2849
View
What are the calculated molecular weights of the TAGZyme enzymes?
FAQ ID -329
View
What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
View
What are the applications the EasyXtal 15-Well Tool can be used for?
FAQ ID -1111
View
What are the amplicon lengths of the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2289
View
What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA?
FAQ ID -2786
View
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
View
What are the advantages of REPLI-g over conventional DNA sample processing and amplification methods?
FAQ ID -686
View
What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays?
FAQ ID -2721
View
What are the advantages and disadvantages of turning on the tip “re-use” feature on the QIAgility?
FAQ ID -3064
View
What are the additional plasmid bands I see on my gel?
FAQ ID -1059
View
What are some of the assays that are adaptable to the LiquiChip System?
FAQ ID -477
View
What are recommended stopping points during the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit procedure?
FAQ ID - 3663
View
What are Principal Components analyzed in Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2200
View
What are possible reasons for reduced DNA yields with REPLI-g Kits?
FAQ ID -2148
View
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
View
What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2359
View
What are Hot-Start DNA polymerases?
FAQ ID -1387
View
What are exo-resistant random hexamers used in the REPLI-g reaction?
FAQ ID -710
View
What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID -2720
View
What are Elution Microtube adapters and Microplate adapters used in the DirectPrep 96 Miniprep Kit, and how can I order them?
FAQ ID -646
View
What are EasyXtal 15-well Tools used for?
FAQ ID -2217
View
What are clusters analyzed in the Rotor-Gene ScreenClust HRM Software?
FAQ ID -2201
View
What applications are offered on the QIAcube?
FAQ ID -1403
View
What annealing temperature should be used with the QuantiTect Primer Assays?
FAQ ID -849
View
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
View
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
View
What 96-well plates do you recommend for use with the LiquiChip Workstation?
FAQ ID -630
View
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
View
We recently changed the OS from Windows XP to Windows 7. When re-installing software Pyromark Q24 2.0.6, it fails to analyse the results. Any suggestions?
FAQ ID - 3621
View
Total RNA from what sample types are compatible with the QIAseq miRNA Library Kit?
FAQ ID - 3660
View
There is no barcode on the QIAsymphony cooling adapter, and the instrument asks for one. What do you suggest I do?
FAQ ID - 3532
View
The Sigma Centrifuge makes a loud noise at low speeds which disappears at higher speeds, when using the 2x96-well plate rotor. What is the problem?
FAQ ID -776
View
The QIAsymphony RNA kit uses RLT plus as lysis buffer. Can samples lysed in RLT and then stored in the freezer be used on the QIAsymphony?
FAQ ID - 3533
View
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2767
View
The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem?
FAQ ID -2766
View
The Multiflow Dispense Head on my BioRobot is not dispensing the correct amount of liquid. What can I do?
FAQ ID -652
View
The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
View
The Gel Cartridge is installed and all status indicators for the QIAxcel System are good but when clicking the "RUN" button, nothing happens. The green highlight goes down the Sequence?
FAQ ID -1850
View
The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions?
FAQ ID -2750
View
The disruption of my sample worked well with the TissueLyser LT, but I am not satisfied with the RNA yield. What do you suggest?
FAQ ID -2555
View
The concentrations of the quantitation standards (QS) of several artus® kits are stated as IU/µl (international units per µl). Is it possible to convert this concentration unit into copies per µl?
FAQ ID -1501
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