Product FAQ - QIAGEN



Product FAQ Bookmark Share more.. You are not authorized to download the resource Sort options Sort alphabetically Sort by relevance Sorted by relevance Do I need the sequence specific miRNA primers in the RT step of the miRNA qPCR Assays? FAQ ID -2725 View Do you always run samples in triplicates? FAQ ID -2703 View Can you use stained (H & E) sections with RT² PreAMP cDNA Synthesis Kit? FAQ ID -2722 View Does QIAGEN guarantee the performance of the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids? FAQ ID -2787 View Does this method with the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array detect methylation at specific CpG dinucleotides? FAQ ID -2737 View Can I make stable cell lines with the Cignal Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2763 View Is it acceptable to correct for transfection efficiency, when determining the level of gene expression knock down by an shRNA expression vector? FAQ ID -2783 View How are the primers in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array designed? FAQ ID -2735 View On which instrumentation will the RT² Profiler PCR Array work? FAQ ID -2719 View Should I use monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies in EpiTect ChIP assays? FAQ ID -2747 View What are the advantages of using the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids over siRNA? FAQ ID -2786 View The EpiTect ChIP qPCR primers I used show very high Ct. Are there any solutions? FAQ ID -2750 View The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are greater than the positive control, is there a problem? FAQ ID -2766 View The pathway reporter luciferase activity values are less than the negative control, is there a problem? FAQ ID -2767 View How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays? FAQ ID -2742 View How can I prevent the evaporation of reaction volume from the wells in the miScript miRNA PCR array? FAQ ID -2729 View How can RNA interference be used as a life science research tool? FAQ ID -2756 View How can I be sure that the restriction enzyme digestion is complete in the EpiTect Methyl qPCR system? FAQ ID -2731 View How can I identify the binding sites of my transcription factor using ChIP? FAQ ID -2753 View How can I normalize my EpiTect ChIP results? FAQ ID -2751 View What is the recommended amount of input template for each RT² qPCR Primer Assay? FAQ ID -2716 View What is the RT² Profiler PCR Array? FAQ ID -2718 View Can the EpiTect Methyl qPCR System technology reliably characterize heterogenous tissue samples? FAQ ID -2732 View Can users insert custom transcriptional regulatory elements or promoters into the Cignal Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2765 View Can you custom design the Epitect qPCR primers for the CpG island outside of the defined promoter region? FAQ ID -2744 View Can I manually set the threshold line? FAQ ID -2702 View Can I use your EpiTect One-Day kit with transcription factors? FAQ ID -2752 View Are EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays applicable to FFPE samples? FAQ ID -2733 View Can I obtain the sequence of the RT² qPCR Primer Assay that I purchased? FAQ ID -2709 View Are there any unique elements that need to be incorporated into an shRNA expression vector? FAQ ID -2772 View Can I use total RNA for the miRNA PCR Arrays or Assays? FAQ ID -2726 View At what point can I stop and freeze my samples when using ChIP? FAQ ID -2754 View Can I use the default PCR program to run EpiTect Methyl qPCR Arrays or Assays? FAQ ID -2745 View Can I use your EpiTect ChIP system in a RNA study? FAQ ID -2748 View Can I transform the Cignal Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2762 View Can I reliably detect intermediately methylated DNA with EpiTect Methyl qPCR Array technology? FAQ ID -2738 View How many experiments can I do with the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2769 View How many housekeeping genes are included in each PCR Array? FAQ ID -2704 View Can I use fluorescence microscopy to assess shRNA plasmid transfection efficiency in my model cell line of interest, when using a vector expressing a GFP reporter gene? FAQ ID -2782 View What are the advantages of EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays and Arrays? FAQ ID -2721 View How reliable are the results from the miScript Primer Assays? FAQ ID -2730 View What are EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assays? FAQ ID -2720 View How do you determine the efficiency using the PCR array? FAQ ID -2701 View How do I choose EpiTect ChIP-grade antibodies? FAQ ID -2746 View How do you design your EpiTect ChIP qPCR Assay primers? Do they work with SB GR? FAQ ID -2749 View How does QIAGEN control the quality of the RT² qPCR Primer Assays? FAQ ID -2711 View How does stable transfection of a shRNA-encoding plasmid work? FAQ ID -2779 View How do I choose between the DNA-based Cignal Reporter Assays and the Cignal Lenti Reporter Assays? FAQ ID -2761 View What are the storage conditions for the Microbial DNA qPCR products? FAQ ID — 3394 View Which Microbial qPCR Mastermix should I use? FAQ ID — 3395 View What is the expected amplicon size of the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays? FAQ ID — 3396 View 3326 - Which QIAcube standard protocol might be suitable to extract RNA from saliva or from a buccal cell pellet? View 3327 - How often should the o-ring for the pipettor tip-adapter be changed on the QIAcube? View 3328 - Can the Sample Tubes CB and the Sample Tubes RB be used interchangeably? View 3329 - When using REPLI-g, if the starting material is a single sorted cell, could mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) be amplified? View 3330 - Is there any contamination from E. coli genomic DNA in the polymerase provided with the Repli-G Single Cell Kit? View 3331 - Should the REPLI-g amplified mtDNA be cleaned up before sequencing? View 3332 - Is there a method that can distinguish between non-amplified DNA and REPLI-g amplified DNA? View 3333 - When using REPLI-g, what is the purpose of the DTT added to the denaturation buffer in the cells/blood protocol? View What sample types can be tested on the arrays/assays? FAQ ID — 3399 View What is the difference between Positive PCR Control (PPC) and Microbial DNA Positive Control? FAQ ID — 3397 View Can I use the Microbial DNA-Free Water and Microbial qPCR Mastermix if they have been opened more than 3 times? FAQ ID — 3398 View What are the minimum sample requirements for Microbial DNA qPCR kits? FAQ ID — 3393 View View View What is the QIAxcel QX RNA Size Marker 200-6000nt? FAQ ID - 3365 View What is the nature of the gel in the QIAxcel RNA QC kit v2.0? Is it denaturing? FAQ ID - 3366 View View 3352 - What are the size ranges of Ni-NTA particles? FAQ ID - 3352 View 3353 - What is the composition of the elution buffer in the Ni-NTA Fast Start Kit? FAQ ID - 3353 View 3351 - What is the upper limit for protein size that can bind to Ni-NTA agarose resin? FAQ ID - 3351 View 3354 - What type and amount of resin is packed into the Ni-NTA Spin columns from the Ni-NTA Spin Kit? FAQ ID - 3354 View 3341 - How are the EpiTect DNA controls produced and tested? FAQ - 3341 View 3344 - What is the difference between the EpiTect Plus DNA Bisulfite kit compared to the classic kit? FAQ - 3344 View 3345 - What is the difference between the high and low concentration EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion protocol? FAQ - 3345 View Why does AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini kit use buffer RLT, but Allprep DNA/RNA Mini and Allprep DNA/RNA Micro kits use buffer RLT Plus? Are these buffers interchangeable? FAQ ID - 3391 View 3311 - Can QuickLyse miniprep kits be used with QIAVac 24 Plus? View 3312 - For DirectPrep 96 miniprep, is it possible to use a half plate and save the other half for later prep? View 3313 - What is the endotoxin level for the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits? View 3314-What is the concentration of RNase A sold separately? View CAn I use milk or other liquids with the DNeasy mericon Food kit? What volume would I use? FAQ ID - 3350 View What is the expected purity of DNA extracted from blood samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3383 View 3316-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiFast Probe Assay? View Does salt concentration in the food matter when using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit? FAQ ID - 3346 View Why does the DNeasy mericon Food Kit use a QIAquick column and Buffer PB rather than a DNeasy column and Buffer AL, which might be expected since the kit isolates genomic DNA? FAQ ID - 3347 View When would I use the mericon DNA Bacteria Kit vs the mericon DNA Bacteria Plus Kit? FAQ ID - 3348 View Why is my 260/280 ratio low after using the DNeasy mericon Food Kit? FAQ ID - 3349 View Is it possible to stop the DNeasy tissue protocol and store the tissue lysates after digesting in buffer ATL and Proteinase K? FAQ ID - 3362 View What is the composition of QIAzol? What is the color of this reagent? FAQ ID - 3355 View Are QIAcube reagent bottles (cat. no. 990393) autoclavable? What type of plastic are they made of? FAQ ID - 3369 View Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)? FAQ ID - 3371 View Are PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) sterile? FAQ ID - 3373 View What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3372 View What is the shelf life of PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) prior to blood collection? FAQ ID - 3374 View How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be transported? FAQ ID - 3375 View Can blood samples be frozen in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3377 View How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at room temperature? FAQ ID - 3378 View Can PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at higher than room temperature (18–25°C)? FAQ ID - 3380 View How long can samples in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD) be stored at 2–8°C? FAQ ID - 3379 View Which downstream applications have been tested with DNA purified from samples collected in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3384 View Can I buy the gDNA eliminator plates supplied in your RNeasy Plus 96 kit separately? FAQ ID - 3389 View What is the composition of elution buffers used in QIAsymphony DNA Investigator kits? FAQ ID - 3387 View Can I buy the gDNA eliminator columns supplied in your RNeasy Plus kits separately? FAQ ID - 3390 View 3323 - Do you have a protocol for the AllPrep DNA/RNA/Protein Mini Kit on the QIAcube? FAQ ID - 3323 View View 3340 - Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software? View 3325 - What are the catalog numbers for the packing materials for the QIAcube? View 3324 - Do you have a protocol for the QIAprep Spin M13 Kit on the QIAcube? View Do I have to use a blood collection set with PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3370 View 3335 - Can I use the DNA directly from enzymatic reaction for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit (cat. no. 59104)? View What is the expected DNA yield from 2.5 ml of blood collected in the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube (IVD)? FAQ ID - 3382 View 3336 - Can I use the linearized DNA for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit? View 3337 - Which method is used for QIAGEN sequencing service? View 3339 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) negatively impact subsequent NGS sequencing? View 3338 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) have 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate groups? View 3342 - How is the unmethylated unconverted EpiTect DNA control to be used? FAQ - 3342 View 3343 - Why is it difficult to quantify DNA using UV/Vis spectroscopy and fluorescence methods following EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion? How best do you quantify it? FAQ - 3343 View 3315-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiTect Primer Assay (200)? View 3322 - What is the concentration of the reconstituted miScript Primer Assay (100) and miScript Precursor Assay (100) tubes? View 3317 - Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from cell cultures using the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit? View 3318 - What guidelines should I follow in designing primers for use with the EpiTect MSP Kit? View 3320 - What is the sensitivity of the Type-it HRM PCR Kit? View 3318 - What is the preferred amplicon size for performing PCR on DNA amplified with the EpiTect Whole Bisulfitome Kit? View 3321 - What is the purpose of the C. elegans miR-39 spike-in control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit? View Can I buy the RNeasy Mini columns, RNeasy MinElute columns, RNeasy Midi columns or the RNeasy Maxi columns separately? FAQ ID - 3388 View Do you have data to show lowest dropout rate with Repli-G WTA Single Cells kit? FAQ ID - 3392 View 3305 - What is the minimal amount of starting material required for using the SBTexcellerator HLA Kits? View View View View 3306 - What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit? View 3304 - What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit? View 3310 - Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit? View 3308 - Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit? View 3309 - Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit? View What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit? FAQ ID -499 View What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap? FAQ ID - 3364 View 3300 - Can isopropanol or methanol be used in place of ethanol in RNeasy kits? View 3301 - Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR? View I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do? FAQ ID - 3363 View 3302 - How long can I store my purified RNA? View Do you sell CoralLoad dye separately? FAQ ID - 3368 View 3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit? View 3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit? View 3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit? View 3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware? View 3188 - How many His residues are required for successful purification on Ni-NTA resins? View 3190 - What is the smallest elution volume for RNeasy Mini Spin column? View Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood? FAQ ID -3120 View What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails -48 View Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood? FAQ ID -3119 View What is the composition of elution buffer ATE in the QIAamp DNA Investigator kit, QIAamp DNA FFPE Tissue kit and the QIAamp Fast DNA Stool Mini kit? FAQ ID -3122 View Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips? FAQ ID -3131 View I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use? FAQ ID -3116 View The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why? FAQ ID -3117 View Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue? FAQ ID -3118 View Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times? FAQ ID -3124 View Can Dithiothreitol (DTT) be used instead of BME in Buffer RLT Plus of RNeasy Plus Mini Kit? FAQ ID -3125 View Can I use the QIAGEN deparaffinization solution with the IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit? FAQ ID -3100 View Can I use stained slide materials with IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit? FAQ ID -3101 View Do you have a protocol for obtaining > 20 µg plasmid DNA using the QIAprep spin miniprep kit? FAQ ID -3102 View How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage? FAQ ID -3103 View How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs? FAQ ID -3105 View What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery? FAQ ID -3104 View Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online? FAQ ID -3106 View What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS? FAQ ID -3108 View Can we do modification XXXXX for custom siRNA that is not on the web page? FAQ ID -3107 View What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended? FAQ ID -3109 View Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor? FAQ ID -3132 View What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer? FAQ ID -3111 View Do you offer FlexiTube or FlexiPlate siRNAs for rat? FAQ ID -3114 View What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay? FAQ ID -3156 View What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol? FAQ ID -3157 View What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit? FAQ ID -3167 View What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24? FAQ ID -3158 View Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system? FAQ ID -3160 View Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system? FAQ ID -3161 View Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument? FAQ ID -3162 View Do you have data on the DNA yield at different incubation time for the Repli-G Kits? FAQ ID -3113 View How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade? FAQ ID -3163 View Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software? FAQ ID -3164 View What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry compared to PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents? FAQ ID -3165 View What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit? FAQ ID -3171 View What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure? FAQ ID -3166 View What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit? FAQ ID -3172 View What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs? FAQ ID -3174 View What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry? FAQ ID -3176 View Does QIAGEN provide template files for GeneMapper® 5 software? FAQ ID -3177 View Can the Rotor-Gene Q perform gradient PCR? FAQ ID -3183 View Can Rotor-Gene Reports be modified? FAQ ID -3184 View Show more results Back to top Contact QIAGEN Global contacts Technical Service Customer Care