FAQ 

 

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3340 - Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark IdentiFire Software?
3325 - What are the catalog numbers for the packing materials for the QIAcube?
3324 - Do you have a protocol for the QIAprep Spin M13 Kit on the QIAcube?

 

3335 - Can I use the DNA directly from enzymatic reaction for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit (cat. no. 59104)?
3336 - Can I use the linearized DNA for Epitect Bisulfite treatment with the Epitect Bisulfite kit?
3337 - Which method is used for QIAGEN sequencing service?
3339 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) negatively impact subsequent NGS sequencing?
3338 - Does the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Spike-in Control (cat n° 219610) have 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate groups?
3342 - How is the unmethylated unconverted EpiTect DNA control to be used?
FAQ - 3342
3343 - Why is it difficult to quantify DNA using UV/Vis spectroscopy and fluorescence methods following EpiTect Bisulfite Conversion? How best do you quantify it?
FAQ - 3343
3315-What is the concentration of the reconstituted QuantiTect Primer Assay (200)?
3322 - What is the concentration of the reconstituted miScript Primer Assay (100) and miScript Precursor Assay (100) tubes?
3317 - Do you have a protocol for isolation of genomic DNA from cell cultures using the QIAamp cador Pathogen Mini Kit?
3318 - What guidelines should I follow in designing primers for use with the EpiTect MSP Kit?
3320 - What is the sensitivity of the Type-it HRM PCR Kit?
3318 - What is the preferred amplicon size for performing PCR on DNA amplified with the EpiTect Whole Bisulfitome Kit?
3321 - What is the purpose of the C. elegans miR-39 spike-in control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
Can I buy the RNeasy Mini columns, RNeasy MinElute columns, RNeasy Midi columns or the RNeasy Maxi columns separately?
FAQ ID - 3388
Do you have data to show lowest dropout rate with Repli-G WTA Single Cells kit?
FAQ ID - 3392
3305 - What is the minimal amount of starting material required for using the SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
3306 - What is the optimal sample DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3304 - What is the maximum DNA input volume that can be used in the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3310 - Which settings for the filter set Any5Dye must be adjusted before running the spectral calibration for Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3308 - Where can I find the template files for the Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3309 - Which filter set should be used with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -499
What fluorescent labels are 6-FAM, BTG, BTY, BTR, and BTO in Matrix Standard BT5 single or multi.cap?
FAQ ID - 3364
3300 - Can isopropanol or methanol be used in place of ethanol in RNeasy kits?
3301 - Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
I cannot analyze the data from your Investigator HID kits with my GeneMapper software. What can I do?
FAQ ID - 3363
3302 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
Do you sell CoralLoad dye separately?
FAQ ID - 3368
3198 - What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator DIPlex Kit?
3194 - What DNA fragment sizes are required for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
3195 - Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator DIPlex kit?
3196 - What is the DIPsorter Freeware?
3188 - How many His residues are required for successful purification on Ni-NTA resins?
3190 - What is the smallest elution volume for RNeasy Mini Spin column?
Is it possible to extract RNA from RNAprotect-stabilized-blood?
FAQ ID -3120
What's the pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) conditions of the gel picture showing on your website? http://www.qiagen.com/Search/MagAttract-HMW-DNA-Kit#productdetails
-48
Is it possible to extract RNA from frozen blood?
FAQ ID -3119
What is the composition of elution buffer ATE in the QIAamp DNA Investigator kit, QIAamp DNA FFPE Tissue kit and the QIAamp Fast DNA Stool Mini kit?
FAQ ID -3122
Why does the QIAcube sometimes fail to pick up the tips or pick up wrong tips?
FAQ ID -3131
I want to purify RNA from heart tissue. What is the best kit to use?
FAQ ID -3116
The kit says I can use up to 30mg of tissue. When I used 15mg I got a higher yield than when I used 30mg. Why?
FAQ ID -3117
Why does the upper aqueous phase look pinkish when purifying RNA from fatty tissue?
FAQ ID -3118
Is it possible to partially use RNeasy 96 plates and use the plate multiple times?
FAQ ID -3124
Can Dithiothreitol (DTT) be used instead of BME in Buffer RLT Plus of RNeasy Plus Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -3125
Can I use the QIAGEN deparaffinization solution with the IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3100
Can I use stained slide materials with IDH 1/2 RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -3101
Do you have a protocol for obtaining > 20 µg plasmid DNA using the QIAprep spin miniprep kit?
FAQ ID -3102
How to upload a Flexiplate on QIAGEN Webpage?
FAQ ID -3103
How many transfections can be performed with Flexiplate siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3105
What is the standard format for Flexiplate siRNAs delivery?
FAQ ID -3104
Where to look for ordering Custom siRNAs online?
FAQ ID -3106
What is the difference between HiPerFect and HiPerFect HTS?
FAQ ID -3108
Can we do modification XXXXX for custom siRNA that is not on the web page?
FAQ ID -3107
What is the stability of siRNA lyophilized and resuspended?
FAQ ID -3109
Why does my purified DNA/RNA sometimes have a 260/280 or 260/230 ratio of more than 2? Does that mean the purity is poor?
FAQ ID -3132
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiSpec Buffer or miScript HiFlex Buffer?
FAQ ID -3111
Do you offer FlexiTube or FlexiPlate siRNAs for rat?
FAQ ID -3114
What is the amplicon size of the PCR product when using the miScript primer assay?
FAQ ID -3156
What are the stopping points in the QIAamp protocol?
FAQ ID -3157
What is the difference between EpiTect Bisulfite Kit and EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kit?
FAQ ID -3167
What are the benefits of PyroMark Q24 Advanced versus PyroMark Q24?
FAQ ID -3158
Is it possible to use PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents on PyroMark Q24 system?
FAQ ID -3160
Is it possible to run therascreen mutation or therascreen Pyro kits on PyroMark Q24 Advanced system?
FAQ ID -3161
Is it possible to upgrade existing PyroMark Q24 instruments to PyroMark Q24 Advanced or do I have to purchase a new instrument?
FAQ ID -3162
Do you have data on the DNA yield at different incubation time for the Repli-G Kits?
FAQ ID -3113
How do I perform the PyroMark Q24 Advanced upgrade?
FAQ ID -3163
Which operating system is compatible with PyroMark Q24 Advanced application software?
FAQ ID -3164
What are the differences between new PyroMark Q24 Advanced reagents chemistry compared to PyroMark Q24 Gold reagents?
FAQ ID -3165
What is the miRNA yield from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3171
What is the adapted annealing protocol for PyroMark Q24 Advanced procedure?
FAQ ID -3166
What is the RNA size distribution recovered from the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit?
FAQ ID -3172
What is the difference between the 1 nmol FlexiTube and FlexiTube Gene Solution siRNAs?
FAQ ID -3174
What could be a reason for higher viscosity of PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry?
FAQ ID -3176
Does QIAGEN provide template files for GeneMapper® 5 software?
FAQ ID -3177
Can the Rotor-Gene Q perform gradient PCR?
FAQ ID -3183
Can Rotor-Gene Reports be modified?
FAQ ID -3184
What is the best way to ensure the Rotor-Disc is properly sealed when using the Heat Sealer?
FAQ ID -3179
What is needed for performing delta delta Ct relative quantitation on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3178
What to do if there is a loss of communication for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3180
Aside from the OTV test, what other maintenance should be done for the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3181
3187 - Why does the Ni-NTA resin turn reddish-brown after mixing with the lysates?
Are the miRNA Target Protector & miRNA mimic bench tested? Any guarantee?
FAQ ID - 3186
3191 - Is the Allprep DNA Mini Spin Column the same as the gDNA eliminator column? Can I interchange these columns?
3192 - Is QIAGEN Protease compatible with Buffer ATL?
3199 - Which species can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3193 - Where can I get an RNase-free syringe that is recommended for reconstituting QIAGEN's RNase-free DNase (cat. no. 79254)?
What is the bacterial ribosomal RNA recommended to use in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Protocol?
FAQ ID -3173
Would co-transfection with the plasmid be expected to increase/decrease the transfection efficiency significantly?
FAQ ID -3136
How do I remove the RNA contamination from purified DNA?
FAQ ID -3133
How can I know whether there is any genomic DNA present in my purified plasmid?
FAQ ID -3134
Is it possible to use RNAprotect Cell Reagent to stabilize buffy coat?
FAQ ID -3139
How do I know whether my miRNA has been successfully purified and how much is expected?
FAQ ID -3135
What is the final concentration of Protease upon reconstitution in the QIAamp DNA Blood Mini?
FAQ ID -3140
Has QIAGEN ever tested Proteinase K treatment for a time period longer than overnight?
Does RNAprotect affect morphology of tissues?
FAQ ID -3142
Is RNAprotect also suitable for the stabilization of miRNA?
FAQ ID -3143
What is the maximum cDNA length that can be synthesized by QuantiTect Reverse Transcription Kit?
FAQ ID -3146
Are miScript primer assays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -3145
What are the minimal and maximum fragment sizes for the QIAquick column in the mericon DNeasy kit?
FAQ ID -3147
Why does the DNeasy mericon Food extraction kit use a QIAquick column and not DNeasy column?
FAQ ID -3148
Can single-stranded DNA be removed by gDNA Eliminator columns?
FAQ ID -3152
How is total RNA purified with RNeasy kits free of genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -3154
Is it possible to quantify protein content in RLT lysates?
FAQ ID -3155
Does RNase-free DNase I affect the isolation of dsRNA?
FAQ ID -3153
What primary cell lines have been tested with HiPerFect Transfection Reagent?
FAQ ID -3137
Is it possible to use the protein resuspended in ALO buffer for downstream BCA assay and Bradford assay?
FAQ ID -3138
What are the miScript Controls that can be used with miScript HiFlex Buffer ONLY?
FAQ ID -3112
How long can I store an RLT lysate?
FAQ ID -3115
What could be a reason for cloudy precipitate in PCR reaction with STR Plus chemistry after cycling protocol is completed?
FAQ ID -3175
Do you have a protocol for the isolation of genomic DNA from yeast/fungi directly from Blood?
FAQ ID -3150
Is REST software Windows 7 compatible?
FAQ ID -3182
Is there cross talk between channels in the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -3185
Can QIAzol aqueous phase be used with the gDNA eliminator columns in RNeasy Plus mini kit?
FAQ ID -3151
What is the Spike-in-Control in the miRNeasy Serum/Plasma Kit ?
FAQ ID -3169
What is in the HiSpec Buffer that selectively synthesizes cDNA from mature miRNAs ONLY?
FAQ ID -3168
3197 -Where can I find the Population Data for the Investigator HDplex kit?
How do I prepare the Spike-in-Control catalog # 219610 to get copies/μl?
FAQ ID -3170
Can I use genomic DNA from fixed samples with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3416
What is the proper disposal procedure for waste from the sample preparation?
FAQ ID - 3470
Can I use amplified genomic DNA with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3415
Do the samples require pretreatment before starting the manual protocol or before loading onto the QIAcube instrument?
FAQ ID - 3479
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with PAXgene miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3480
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes isolated with the PAXgene Blood miRNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3481
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at 4°C?
FAQ ID - 3493
How should I thaw frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3495
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
3497 - What is the expected purity and size of DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3497
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be frozen? If yes, at what temperatures and for how long?
FAQ ID - 3491
Can mitochondrial DNA be isolated with the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3498
Does the DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA System contain RNA?
FAQ ID - 3499
What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
Can I multiplex the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3408
Can I measure virulence factor gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3405
What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
Can I measure antibiotic resistance gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3404
Are the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays wet-lab verified?
FAQ ID — 3406
What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
Are the assays species-specific?
FAQ ID — 3400
Why is the copy number call lower than expected?
FAQ ID — 3413
Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
Will qBiomarker Copy Number Assays work with heterogeneous samples like mixtures of tumor and normal tissue?
FAQ ID — 3419
How should I analyze the data generated from a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array experiment?
FAQ ID — 3421
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
How much DNA should I use on a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array?
FAQ ID — 3417
How much DNA should I use in a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Assay?
FAQ ID — 3418
How do you choose which assays to include on the arrays?
FAQ ID — 3420
What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3477
Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
As part of my RT procedure I routinely heat an aliquot of the eluate prior to the RT reaction. Do I still need to heat the whole eluate after the RNA preparation?
FAQ ID - 3468
Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm?
FAQ ID - 3460
I need to buy a new computer for my PyroMark Q96. Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q96 software on my new computer or do I need to purchase a new license?
FAQ ID - 3472
Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q24 software on my new computer or following an operating system upgrade, or do I need to purchase a new license?

FAQ ID - 3473

Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at higher temperatures?
FAQ ID - 3494
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3476
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
2. Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes CE (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)?
FAQ ID - 3485
Are the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes sterile?
FAQ ID - 3487
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3483
Do I have to use a blood collection set with the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3484
How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be shipped?
FAQ ID - 3489
How long can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be kept at room temperature? What is room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3492
Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
How should blood samples drawn into the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored?
FAQ ID - 3490
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify plant miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3431
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify animal miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3433
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify piRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3432
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify piRNA expression?

FAQ ID - 3434

Are any of the miScript II RT Kit components interchangeable with the miScript Plant RT Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3436
Does the miScript Plant RT Kit contain controls?
FAQ ID - 3435
What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
Are miScript Primer Assays available for plant mature miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3439
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
Are miScript Primer Assay included in miScript miRNA PCR Arrays the same primers as the miScript Primer Assays available in individual tubes?
FAQ ID - 3441

 

Are plant miScript Primer Assay designs wet-bench validated?
FAQ ID - 3440
Can you describe the adaptor found in the 10x miScript Plant Adaptor?
FAQ ID - 3442
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
Can cDNA synthesized with the miScript Plant RT Kit be used in real-time PCR with TaqMan® MicroRNA Assays?
FAQ ID - 3445
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
Can the PAXgene RNA stabilization solution/blood mixture from the PAXgene Blood RNA Tube be disposed of by adding bleach?
FAQ ID - 3469
Can I scale up reagents if I want to use more sample with the MagAttract HMW DNA Kit (cat. no. 67563)?
FAQ ID - 3448
How can I calculate the number of bacterial cells that are present in a sample using the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3411
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
Can specific types of white blood cells be enriched from a PAXgene Blood RNA Tube prior to the RNA isolation?
FAQ ID - 3467
Can the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID - 3471
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
How long can the PAXgene Blood RNA tubes be kept frozen at –20°C or –70°C?
FAQ ID - 3463
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate DNA?
FAQ ID - 3466
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used with animal blood samples?
FAQ ID - 3461
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate viral RNA?
FAQ ID - 3465
Can I use DNA isolated from an AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3425
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
Why is the final heat denaturation step so important with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2987
What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA tissue protocols and QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2991
Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2983
Do you need to pre-treat food samples before DNA isolation using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2957
How can I desalt and concentrate a protein fraction by trichloroacetic acid (TCA) precipitation?
FAQ ID -2954
Do the samples require pretreatment before loading onto the instrument with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2982
Do tissue samples require pretreatment before loading onto the QIAsymphony SP for DNA extraction?
FAQ ID -2926
Do the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids contain inducible promoters?
FAQ ID -2904
How do you decide on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays to include on the pathway arrays and disease arrays?
FAQ ID -2913
How many mutations can I profile per sample on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2911
How many freeze-thaw cycles can the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits tolerate?
FAQ ID -2975
How can I estimate the size of my protein based on the length of the respective cDNA?
FAQ ID -2952
How can I precipitate genomic DNA using isopropanol?
FAQ ID -2953
How do I use the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2923
Can I use the Type-it CNV kits and Reference Assays for CNV studis in mice?
FAQ ID -2997
Can the Certal CHO Positive Control DNA be used to create a qPCR standard for relative quantification?
FAQ ID -2979
Can the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit be used to express entire IgGs?
FAQ ID -2966
Can I use lysates or tissue homogenates with the ELISArray kits?
FAQ ID -2905
Can I use TaqMan® Copy Number Assays from LIFE Technologies in combination with the Type-it CNV Probe kit?
FAQ ID -2999
Can I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with primary cells or macrophages or for injection into live animals?
FAQ ID -2902
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