Product FAQ

 

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Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at 4°C?
FAQ ID - 3493
How should I thaw frozen PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes?
FAQ ID - 3495
What is the expected yield from 8.5 ml of blood?
FAQ ID - 3496
3497 - What is the expected purity and size of DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3497
Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be frozen? If yes, at what temperatures and for how long?
FAQ ID - 3491
Can mitochondrial DNA be isolated with the PAXgene Blood DNA System?
FAQ ID - 3498
Does the DNA extracted using the PAXgene Blood DNA System contain RNA?
FAQ ID - 3499
What species are detected by the Pan Bacteria 1 and Pan Bacteria 3 Assays?
FAQ ID - 3427
Can I multiplex the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3408
Can I measure virulence factor gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3405
What sample types can I test on qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID — 3423
What is the sensitivity for the Microbial DNA qPCR kits?
FAQ ID — 3409
Which probe labels are available for the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3407
Can I measure antibiotic resistance gene expression?
FAQ ID — 3404
Are the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays wet-lab verified?
FAQ ID — 3406
What sequences are used to design the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3403
What is the difference between LLOQ and LOD?
FAQ ID — 3402
What is LLOQ?
FAQ ID — 3401
Are the assays species-specific?
FAQ ID — 3400
Why is the copy number call lower than expected?
FAQ ID — 3413
Why do qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays have assays in quadruplicate?
FAQ ID — 3414
Will qBiomarker Copy Number Assays work with heterogeneous samples like mixtures of tumor and normal tissue?
FAQ ID — 3419
How should I analyze the data generated from a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array experiment?
FAQ ID — 3421
What qPCR mastermix should I use with the qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3422
What could have gone wrong if the CT values are unusually high for all wells in a sample?
FAQ ID — 3412
How much DNA should I use on a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Array?
FAQ ID — 3417
How much DNA should I use in a qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Assay?
FAQ ID — 3418
How do you choose which assays to include on the arrays?
FAQ ID — 3420
What testing should be performed in order to assess the quality of a DNA sample?
FAQ ID — 3424
What is the composition of Buffer AC in the QIAamp UltraSens Virus Kit?
FAQ ID - 3429
How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3477
Why have the hazard symbols accompanying products changed?
FAQ ID - 3430
As part of my RT procedure I routinely heat an aliquot of the eluate prior to the RT reaction. Do I still need to heat the whole eluate after the RNA preparation?
FAQ ID - 3468
Why is a blood collection set required to be used with the PAXgene Blood RNA tube?
FAQ ID - 3459
Is there any chance of the PAXgene Blood RNA tube reagent going back into the patient's arm?
FAQ ID - 3460
I need to buy a new computer for my PyroMark Q96. Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q96 software on my new computer or do I need to purchase a new license?
FAQ ID - 3472
Can I reinstall the PyroMark Q24 software on my new computer or following an operating system upgrade, or do I need to purchase a new license?

FAQ ID - 3473

Can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored at higher temperatures?
FAQ ID - 3494
What additional equipment is needed to purify RNA using the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3474
What are the expected yields of RNA from PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID - 3475
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3476
What is the additive in PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes
FAQ ID - 3486
2. Are there any special considerations for the collection of blood using PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes CE (e.g., use of a blood collection set or discard tube, positioning of the tube, issues with short draws, etc.)?
FAQ ID - 3485
Are the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes sterile?
FAQ ID - 3487
What is the maximum number of samples for the QIAcube variant of the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID - 3482
Is it possible to isolate genomic DNA or viral nucleic acids with PAXgene Blood miRNA protocol?
FAQ ID - 3483
Do I have to use a blood collection set with the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube?
FAQ ID - 3484
How should blood samples drawn into PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be shipped?
FAQ ID - 3489
How long can the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube be kept at room temperature? What is room temperature?
FAQ ID - 3492
Which sample types can be processed using the PAXgene Blood miRNA protocols?
FAQ ID - 3478
What is the shelf life of the PAXgene Blood DNA Tube prior to blood collection?
FAQ ID - 3488
How should blood samples drawn into the PAXgene Blood DNA Tubes be stored?
FAQ ID - 3490
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify plant miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3431
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify animal miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3433
Can the miScript II RT Kit be used to quantify piRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3432
Can the miScript Plant RT Kit be used to quantify piRNA expression?

FAQ ID - 3434

Are any of the miScript II RT Kit components interchangeable with the miScript Plant RT Kit components?
FAQ ID - 3436
Does the miScript Plant RT Kit contain controls?
FAQ ID - 3435
What should I use to isolate total RNA from plant tissues and what is the maximum recommended amount of tissue input?
FAQ ID - 3438
Are miScript Primer Assays available for plant mature miRNAs?
FAQ ID - 3439
What is the composition of the 5x miScript Plant RT Buffer?
FAQ ID - 3437
Are miScript Primer Assay included in miScript miRNA PCR Arrays the same primers as the miScript Primer Assays available in individual tubes?
FAQ ID - 3441

 

Are plant miScript Primer Assay designs wet-bench validated?
FAQ ID - 3440
Can you describe the adaptor found in the 10x miScript Plant Adaptor?
FAQ ID - 3442
What is the amplicon size of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR System?
FAQ ID - 3443
What is the dissociation curve temperature of PCR products generated with the miScript Plant qPCR system?
FAQ ID - 3444
Can cDNA synthesized with the miScript Plant RT Kit be used in real-time PCR with TaqMan® MicroRNA Assays?
FAQ ID - 3445
What is the shelf-life for QIAGEN Proteinase K (cat. no. 19131, 19133)?
FAQ ID - 3447
What is the recommended RNA and RNA input range for the miScript Plant RT Kit?
FAQ ID - 3446
Can the PAXgene RNA stabilization solution/blood mixture from the PAXgene Blood RNA Tube be disposed of by adding bleach?
FAQ ID - 3469
Can I scale up reagents if I want to use more sample with the MagAttract HMW DNA Kit (cat. no. 67563)?
FAQ ID - 3448
How can I calculate the number of bacterial cells that are present in a sample using the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays?
FAQ ID — 3411
What is the difference between the Microbial DNA qPCR Assays and the QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID — 3410
Can specific types of white blood cells be enriched from a PAXgene Blood RNA Tube prior to the RNA isolation?
FAQ ID - 3467
Can the PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID - 3471
What RNA yields are expected with the PAXgene Blood RNA kit?
FAQ ID - 3464
How long can the PAXgene Blood RNA tubes be kept frozen at –20°C or –70°C?
FAQ ID - 3463
What are possible reasons for blood draws with lower than expected blood volume?
FAQ ID - 3462
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate DNA?
FAQ ID - 3466
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used with animal blood samples?
FAQ ID - 3461
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA System be used to isolate viral RNA?
FAQ ID - 3465
Can I use DNA isolated from an AllPrep DNA/RNA Kit with qBiomarker Copy Number PCR Arrays and Assays
FAQ ID — 3425
What is the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) and what is the impact for me as a customer?
FAQ ID - 3428
What are the software requirements to run the QIAlink software package?
FAQ - 3426
What transfection method should I use with the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids?
FAQ ID -2901
What is the composition of Buffer G2?
FAQ ID -2943
What is the data analysis method, and where can I find it for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutatation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2915
What is the cellular composition of human blood?
FAQ ID -2951
What is the composition of Buffer B1?
FAQ ID -2944
What is the composition of Buffer B2?
FAQ ID -2945
What is the nature and target of the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2974
What is the principle for qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array data analysis?
FAQ ID -2916
What is the label of the probe that is used in the Internal Control Assay to detect the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits?
FAQ ID -2976
Were all assays on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays bench-validated?
FAQ ID -2912
What are the control features on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2914
What are the advantages of RT-PCR based somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays compared to other platforms?
FAQ ID -2921
What happens if the starting volume is too high when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit? Can spillage occur when the sample is initially transferred?
FAQ ID -2963
What happens if the starting volume is too low when using QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2962
What is a PyroMark instrument method or instrument code?
FAQ ID -2941
What effects can be predicted with poor sample quality? How robust is the platform with questionable sample quality (such as FFPE samples)?
FAQ ID -2918
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2937
What elution formats can be used for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2986
When do I have to change the pulse settings/methods in a pyrosequencing run setup?
FAQ ID -2942
When should I choose EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2971
Which elution volumes can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2938
What sample volumes can be used with the tissue HC and LC protocols on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2992
Why do I have to use an ACS (Assay Control Set)?
FAQ ID -2933
Why is the final heat denaturation step so important with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol?
FAQ ID -2987
What types of templates can be used for expression of antibody fragments?
FAQ ID -2964
Will mitochondrial DNA also be isolated using the DNA tissue protocols and QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2991
Which kit size should be used for each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocol?
FAQ ID -2930
Which sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2981
What pathways and diseases are currently covered for the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2922
Why does the template for EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits need to have a signal sequence (such as the mellitin signal sequence as provided by the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit primers)?
FAQ ID -2967
What sample input formats can be used for the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2936
What is the sequence of the miScript Universal Primer?
FAQ ID -2994
What is the starting volume for the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2956
What is the sensitivity of the assays contained on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2910
What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2907
What is the linear range of the Multi-Analyte ELISArray Kits?
FAQ ID -2909
What is the maximum number of GOIs that I can detect with the Type-it CNV Probe Master Mix in the same qPCR reaction?
FAQ ID -2998
What are the expected DNA yields from tissue processed on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2990
What are the recommended lysis times for tissue samples on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2993
What PCR machine do I need to use to run such a qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2917
What are the technological principles behind somatic mutation PCR arrays and assays?
FAQ ID -2924
What method(s) do you recommend as an alternative way to validate the mutations identified on the somatic mutation PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2920
What sample types should be processed with the low content (LC) and high content (HC) protocols for DNA extraction on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2989
What sample volumes can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2929
What sample types can I test on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2919
What sample types can be processed using the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen protocols?
FAQ ID -2928
What sample types can be processed using the tissue protocols and the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit?
FAQ ID -2925
What samples can the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit be used for?
FAQ ID -2958
Do you have stability data for RNA isolated with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2983
Do you need to pre-treat food samples before DNA isolation using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2957
How can I desalt and concentrate a protein fraction by trichloroacetic acid (TCA) precipitation?
FAQ ID -2954
Do the samples require pretreatment before loading onto the instrument with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2982
Do tissue samples require pretreatment before loading onto the QIAsymphony SP for DNA extraction?
FAQ ID -2926
Do the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids contain inducible promoters?
FAQ ID -2904
How do you decide on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays to include on the pathway arrays and disease arrays?
FAQ ID -2913
How many mutations can I profile per sample on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2911
How many freeze-thaw cycles can the Internal Control supplied with Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits tolerate?
FAQ ID -2975
How can I estimate the size of my protein based on the length of the respective cDNA?
FAQ ID -2952
How can I precipitate genomic DNA using isopropanol?
FAQ ID -2953
How do I use the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2923
Can I use the Type-it CNV kits and Reference Assays for CNV studis in mice?
FAQ ID -2997
Can the Certal CHO Positive Control DNA be used to create a qPCR standard for relative quantification?
FAQ ID -2979
Can the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit be used to express entire IgGs?
FAQ ID -2966
Can I use lysates or tissue homogenates with the ELISArray kits?
FAQ ID -2905
Can I use TaqMan® Copy Number Assays from LIFE Technologies in combination with the Type-it CNV Probe kit?
FAQ ID -2999
Can I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with primary cells or macrophages or for injection into live animals?
FAQ ID -2902
Do I have to use an internal control with each QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kit protocol run?
FAQ ID -2932
Do samples require pretreatment before they are loaded onto the QIAsymphony instrument?
FAQ ID -2931
Can the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen system be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID -2939
Do the ELISArray Kits work on species other than human, mouse or rat?
FAQ ID -2906
Does the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit contain an extraction control?
FAQ ID -2961
Is it possible to simultaneously isolate DNA and RNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2996
Is it possible to use templates with signal sequences with EasyXpress Disulfide E. coli Kits?
FAQ ID -2969
Is food DNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2959
Is it possible to introduce an affinity tag using the EasyXpress Linear Template Fab Kit?
FAQ ID -2972
Is it possible to isolate DNA from Saliva Stabilized in RNAprotect® Saliva Reagent?
FAQ ID -2995
On what cyclers have Certal Residual DNA Detection Kits been validated?
FAQ ID -2978
On which cyclers can Certal Residual Detection Kits be used?
FAQ ID -2973
Should I use the SureSilencing shRNA Plasmids with the GFP, neomycin, or hygromycin, or puromycin resistance marker?
FAQ ID -2900
Is it possible to use the native signal sequence of antibodies with EasyXpress Disulfide Insect Kits?
FAQ ID -2968
Is RNA co-purified using the QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2960
How much DNA does a bacterial cell contain?
FAQ ID -2947
Is there a risk of crosstalk from the FAM channel to the VIC channel if the residual DNA target is present in very high copy numbers?
FAQ ID -2980
How much DNA does a human cell contain?
FAQ ID -2948
How much RNA does a bacterial cell contain?
FAQ ID -2949
How many reactions can be performed with one QIAsymphony mericon Bacteria Kit?
FAQ ID -2955
How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?
FAQ ID -2935
How should the samples be stored before purification of RNA with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Protocol?
FAQ ID -2984
How much DNA and RNA can be expected from human blood cells?
FAQ ID -2950
How should the samples be stored before purification with the QIAsymphony DSP Virus/Pathogen Kits?
FAQ ID -2934
If a cycler from Applied Biosystems is used in combination with the Certal Residual DNA Detection Kit, should dye calibration for MAX be performed?
FAQ ID -2977
How much RNA does a typical mammalian cell contain?
FAQ ID -2946
How much sample is required for each well for an ELISArray Kit?
FAQ ID -2908
How much starting material can be used with the QIAsymphony DSP DNA Mini Kit on the QIAsymphony SP?
FAQ ID -2927
What is the recommended solution in which to store RNA samples that will be used as templates for cDNA synthesis?
FAQ ID -2659
What is the QIAxcel Advanced System?
FAQ ID -2650
What is the purpose of the ROX and fluorescein dyes, also known as passive reference dyes, in qPCR master mixes?
FAQ ID -2671
What is the optimal DNA concentration for the Investigator ESSplex Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2646
What negative controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2672
What is the SBTengine® software?
FAQ ID -2628
What is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the standard curve method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2691
What is the delta Rn value?
FAQ ID -2681
What is the threshold cycle or Ct value?
FAQ ID -2682
What is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis? How is the comparative or ??Ct method for qPCR assay data analysis performed?
FAQ ID -2693
What is the key technical challenge in isolating high quality RNA from cell or tissue samples?
FAQ ID -2656
What is qPCR?
FAQ ID -2668
What is the difference between Absolute Quantification and Relative Quantification in qPCR, using the standard curve approach?
FAQ ID -2692
Why do I see low, poor, or sub-standard amplification efficiency in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2695
Is the QuantiFast SYBR Green PCR Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2652
What is the difference between adding the Internal Control (IC) template used in the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit to the amplification reaction versus adding the IC template at the extraction step?
FAQ ID -2600
What is a dissociation curve, and why is it important to run a dissociation curve, following qPCR using SYBR Green chemistry?
FAQ ID -2678
What are the most reliable methods for preparing high-quality RNA from cell or tissue samples, for use in gene expression analysis experiments?
FAQ ID -2657
What are the differences between one-step and two-step RT--PCR?
FAQ ID -2666
What are the guidelines for choosing a housekeeping gene for normalizing qPCR results?
FAQ ID -2674
Why are my qPCR Ct values too high (> 35 or not detectable) in my qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2685
Why are my qPCR Ct values too low (< 12) in my qRT-PCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2684
Why is 18S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) used as a housekeeping gene to normalize sample-to-sample, systematic variation in qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2675
Why is my no template control (NTC) real-time Ct value < 35 cycles in my qPCR Assay?
FAQ ID -2686
Why do the Internal Control templates for extraction (Internal Control DNA or RNA [High conc.]) have a 10x higher concentration than the IC templates provided with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2603
Why do I see multiple high-intensity peaks in my qPCR dissociation curve at temperatures less than 70 ºC?
FAQ ID -2690
Why do my qPCR amplification curves or plots decrease in fluorescence intensity after the saturation phase?
FAQ ID -2689
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on ABI instruments, when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2610
What should the cycler set-up be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX) on Mx instruments from Stratagene (Agilent), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2609
What positive controls are typically included in qPCR and/or qRT-PCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2673
What should I do if I suspect that my RNA preparation contains RNase contamination?
FAQ ID -2661
What real-time cycler should I use for my qPCR experiments?
FAQ ID -2670
Which DNA/RNA extraction kits were tested in combination with the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2606
For the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC kit, does the Internal Control also control for the reverse transcription reaction?
FAQ ID -2601
What should the Rotor-Gene Q cycler settings be for a duplex reaction with the pathogen assay (FAM) and the Internal Control assay (MAX), when using the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit?
FAQ ID -2608
What testing should be performed to assess the quality of an RNA sample?
FAQ ID -2660
Following thermal cycling, reaction volume has evaporated from some of the wells of my qPCR assay plate. What should I do?
FAQ ID -2683
Do we have data on long term stability and storage of DNA purified on BioRobot M48?
FAQ ID -2611
During data analysis, how should the threshold be set in the Yellow channel on the Rotor-Gene Q cycler to analyze the Internal Control from the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit or the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit
FAQ ID -2607
How can I predict the percent qPCR signal due to contaminating DNA, for a given qPCR assay, and its matching NRT control?
FAQ ID -2688
How can I ensure that reaction volume is not lost due to evaporation during thermal cycling?
FAQ ID -2679
How can I determine whether amplification occurs from mRNA-derived cDNA or from genomic DNA contamination?
FAQ ID -2687
How can I avoid or remove genomic DNA contamination from the total RNA preparation?
FAQ ID -2662
Do the QuantiFast Pathogen PCR +IC Kit and the QuantiFast Pathogen RT-PCR +IC Kit contain ROX in the master mix?
FAQ ID -2605
Can the Internal Control DNA or RNA be added directly to the sample?
FAQ ID -2602
Are primers available that only detect mitochondrial DNA encoded genes and not nuclear genomic DNA encoded genes?
FAQ ID -2680
Do I need to run a standard curve before the actual PCR array experiment?
FAQ ID -2664
Does the amount of Internal Control to be spiked into the lysis buffer or lysate depend on the elution volume only?
FAQ ID -2604
May I try the data analysis tool without using your PCR array kit?
FAQ ID -2698
What are the common primer and probe chemistries utilized for qPCR assays?
FAQ ID -2669
Is the QuantiFast Multiplex PCR +R Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2653
Is the QuantiFast Probe PCR +ROX Vial Kit compatible with the ViiA7 cycler from Applied Biosystems?
FAQ ID -2651
How do I determine the amplification efficiency of my qPCR assay?
FAQ ID -2694
How do I determine the linear dynamic range of my qPCR or qRT-PCR assay?
FAQ ID -2696
How do I create a workspace that is free of DNA contamination, prior to carrying out a qPCR experiment?
FAQ ID -2654
How does HotStart PCR help minimize nonspecific amplification events?
FAQ ID -2676
Is it good to pool multiple RNA replicates to detect expression changes that are consistently reproducible?
FAQ ID -2663
How important is the RNA purification process, for obtaining reliable qRT-PCR results?
FAQ ID -2655
3212 - What is the minimum size of DNA fragment that can be isolated with QIAamp DNA Mini kit?
3210 - Can the 4-16K Centrifuge be used with a 208 V outlet?
3211 - What is the maximum speed of the plate rotor 2 x 96 in the 4-16 or 4-16K?
3202 - Can GeneRead rRNA depletion kit be used to deplete rRNA from miRNA isolated using miRNeasy kit?
3299-Can Buffer ER from the Endofree Plasmid kits be used instead of the Buffer ETR in QIAGEN Plasmid Plus kits?
3213 - How much ethanol should be added to Buffer AP3/E (renamed to Buffer AW1) and Buffer AW (renamed to Buffer AW2) in the DNeasy Plant kit?
3200 - What is the Maximum/Minimum amount of RNA that can be used with GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3201 - What quality of RNA can be used with the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3203 - Is the RNeasy MinElute cleanup kit required for the GeneRead rRNA depletion kit?
3204 - How strict is the purification cut-off with GeneRead Size Selection kit?
3205 - Can GeneRead Library preparation kits be used on species other than human mouse and rat, for example, plant species and microbial species?
3206 - Can our GeneRead Library preparation kits be used with the SoLiD Platform?
3248 - What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase?
3254 - When using the Nextal Cubic Phase products how do I know in which phase the sample is? What will I see?
3255 - When using the NexTal Cubic Phase products, should I work with diluted or undiluted screens?
3227 - In which solution can I keep my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
3217 - How long can I store my purified RNA?
3225 - How pure should my protein be for the NexTal CubicPhase kits?
3292-How do I start using the NeXtal CubicPhase kits?
3295-What is the difference between SBTexcellerator HLA Core, Extended and Full Kits?
3240 - What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
3237 - I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible?
3233 - Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods.
3265 - Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
3298-Will the sequence of the QuantiFast Probe Assays be provided?
3262 - Which thermal cyclers are validated for use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3263 - Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after the addition of chloroform when using the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit?
3264 - Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
3241 - What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
3238 - What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
3239 - What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
3247 - What is the correct matrix to use with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3245 - What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3243 - What does the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit contain?
3244 -What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
3231 - Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3232 - Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues?
3228 - Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3229 - Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers?
3236 - I use cultured cells as starting material. Can I also use the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit?
Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?
3261 - Which purification kits are recommended for the therascreen Pyro kits?
3258 - Which filter set and settings should be used with the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3260 - Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
3259 - Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3249 - What is the optimal DNA volume and concentration for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3296-Why does the A peak reduction factor have to de set to 0.86 for the codon 61 assay in the therascreen NRAS Pyro Kit?
What plug-ins are available for the therascreen Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3251
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID - 3250
3252 - What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3256 - Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
3257 - Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3253 - What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
Can the insertions in Exon 20 be detected with the therascreen EGFR Pyro Kit?
Can the insertions in Exon 20 be detected with the EGFR Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID - 3279
3277 - Can I use the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit for all types of tissue?
Can QuantiFast Probe Assays be ordered offline via e-mail or fax?
FAQ ID - 3278
3283-Do you have any information or guidelines regarding the choice of reference genes for real-time PCR?
3285-How are the genes in each iPSC qBiomarker PCR Array selected?
Can the QuantiFast Probe Assay detect short fragmented RNA as well as longer fragments of RNA?
3284-For which applications can the RNA isolated with the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit also be used?
Do the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kits contain both wash buffers, RW1 and RWT?
FAQ ID - 3282
3270 - Are the primer sets different for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit and ESSplex SE where the loci are the same?
Are the QuantiFast Probe Assays hydrolysis or FRET probes?
FAQ ID - 3271
Are panels and bin sets available for use with GeneMapper ID and GeneMapper ID-X?
FAQ ID - 3267
3275 - Can I use more than 10ng DNA for the PCR reaction for my therascreen Pyro Kits?
Can I use more than 10ng DNA for the PCR reaction for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID - 3276
3274 - Can I do singleplex PCR with the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
3272 - Are the QuantiFast Probe Assays wet-lab validated?
3273 - At what temperature can I perform the experiment with the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
3222 - How much DNA/RNA can be isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3218 - How many fragments are contained within the size standard BTO in the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3219 - How many freeze-thaw cycles can the master mix contained in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit tolerate?
3220 - How many PCR cycles should I use for the Investigator Nonaplex ESS Kit?
3226 - How pure should the chloroform used with the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit be?
3223 - How much sample material can I use for DNA/RNA purification with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
3224 - How much time can be saved when using the RNeasy Mini QIAcube Kit?
3289-How does the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit eliminate genomic DNA contamination?
3290-How do I analyze the data for the particular iPSC qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
3288-How does the gDNA eliminator solution of the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit work?
3286-How can I adjust the ROX concentration in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus master mix?
3294-How long can I store my purified DNA/RNA isolated with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE kit?
3291-How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
3246 - What is the correct matrix to use with Investigator ESSplex SE Plus Kit?
3297-Why does the PCR for HLA-DRB4 result in 2 amplicons of different size?
3266 - Why are two different exon 2 forward sequencing primers used for the SBTexcellerator HLA-DRB1 Kit?
3215 - What is the starting material for SBTexcellerator HLA Kits?
How can I find out if my gene of interest is expressed in a specific tissue type or cell line?
FAQ ID - 3214
What batch sizes can be selected with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2491
What are typical yields of bisulfite converted DNA when using the EpiTect Plus Bisulfite Kits?
FAQ ID -2408
What are the labels of the probe which is used in the Internal Control Assay for detection of the IC?
FAQ ID -2449
What is the detection limit for the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kits?
FAQ ID -2453
Is there a critical step during upfront sample handling when using the PAXgene Blood RNA MDX kit?
FAQ ID -2493
What is the difference between QuantiTect Virus Kit and the new QuantiFast Pathogen +IC Kits?
FAQ ID -2448
Which EpiTect Bisulfite Plus kit do you recommend for blood samples, cells, and tissues?
FAQ ID -2411
Where can I find general information about RT-PCR and PCR arrays such as information about sample preparation, reverse transcription, quantitative PCR, real-time PCR, and PCR arrays?
FAQ ID -2446
In which solution can I keep my protein for the NexTal Cubic Phase kits?
FAQ ID -2416
What is the maximum number of batches for the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA protocol for a single run?
FAQ ID -2498
What is the nature of the Internal Control in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit?
FAQ ID -2450
Why should I use the EpiTect Plus FFPE Bisulfite Kit instead of isolating FFPE DNA first and then doing the bisulfite conversion?
FAQ ID -2412
Why should I work with diluted or undiluted screens?
FAQ ID -2419
What is the difference between sponge, cubic and lamellar phase of the NeXtal CubicPhase crystallisation?
FAQ ID -2420
Where are the somatic mutations published?
FAQ ID -2429
What kind of control samples should I use for the particular iPSC-qBiomarker Arrays I have ordered?
FAQ ID -2441
What should be the concentration of my protein for the Nextal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2417
What is the PAXgene 96 filter plate?
FAQ ID -2486
What is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2456
Can the Internal Controls be ordered separately in the QuantiFast Pathogen + IC kit for use during purification?
FAQ ID -2451
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit be used with both the BioRobot Universal System and the BioRobot MDx?
FAQ ID -2489
Can the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID -2488
Can the PAXgene Blood miRNA System be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID -2494
Can the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA System be used for diagnostic or prognostic procedures?
FAQ ID -2496
How are the different mutations for a single gene normalized on the qBiomarker Somatic Mutation PCR array?
FAQ ID -2428
At what temperature can I perform the NexTal Cubic Phase experiment and incubate the plate?
FAQ ID -2415
How can I check DNA sample quality before using the Somatic Mutation PCR Arrays & Assays?
FAQ ID -2430
How much DNA starting sample is needed for analysis with a Somatic Mutations PCR Array? And Assay?
FAQ ID -2431
How do I get started using the NeXtal CubicPhase kits?
FAQ ID -2413
After bisulfite conversion, can the DNA be stored?
FAQ ID -2409
Can I buy QIAquick and MinElute columns separately?
FAQ ID -2460
How many samples can be processed with the QIAsymphony PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2497
How pure should my protein be with the NexTal CubicPhase kits?
FAQ ID -2414
How many samples can be processed with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2490
How many PAXgene Blood RNA Tubes can be processed per PAXgene 96 Blood RNA Kit well plate?
FAQ ID -2485
In the REST software, what is the range indicated by 'Std. Error' on the 'Results' page?
FAQ ID -2455
If less than 48/96 samples are being processed, is it possible to leave positions empty with the PAXgene Blood RNA MDx Kit?
FAQ ID -2492
How do I determine if my gene expression results are statistically significant in the REST software?
FAQ ID -2458
How does the DNA Protection work in the EpitTect Bisulfite kits?
FAQ ID -2410
How is the hypothesis test performed in the REST software?
FAQ ID -2459
How many different genes and gene mutations are on a Somatic Mutation PCR Array?
FAQ ID -2427
How long does a QuantiFast Pathogen + IC run take on the Rotor-Gene Q?
FAQ ID -2452
How do I know in which phase of my NeXtal CubicPhase cristallisation experiment I am?
FAQ ID -2421
How do I harvest the crystals from meso phase? Are special tools needed?
FAQ ID -2422
How great is the enrichment of miRNA when using the dedicated PAXgene Blood miRNA Kit compared to the PAXgene Blood RNA Kit?
FAQ ID -2495
What are important points regarding the genomic DNA wipeout buffer in the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2359
Will the sequence of the QuantiFast Probe Assays be provided?
FAQ ID -2369
Why are there various different QuantiFast Probe Assays for my gene (previous versions, transcript variants)?
FAQ ID -2366
Why are samples centrifuged at 4°C after addition of chloroform to the QIAzol lysates in following kits: RNeasy Lipid Tissue Mini/Midi kits, RNeasy Microarray Tissue Mini kit, RNeasy Plus Universal Mini/Midi kit, RNeasy 96 Universal Tissue kit, miRNeasy Mini kit, miRNeasy Micro kit, miRNeasy 96 kit and miRNeasy Serum/Plasma kit?
FAQ ID -2345
Why are the QuantiFast Probe Assays located on a single exon, thereby also detecting genomic DNA?
FAQ ID -2365
What dedicated QIAcube Kits are available?
FAQ ID -2337
What are the recommended storage conditions of the QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Plus Kit components?
FAQ ID -2355
What are the main differences between the qBiomarker PCR Arrays and the RT2 Profiler PCR Arrays?
FAQ ID -2438
What are the differences between the existing QuantiFast Probe RT-PCR Kit and the new Plus Kit?
FAQ ID -2358
What is the concentration of the primers and the probe in a reaction using the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2370
What is the average length of a QuantiFast Probe Assay?
FAQ ID -2374
Is the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit suited for adipose, brain, and other fatty tissues?
FAQ ID -2343
Is there a size limit to the protein I can crystallize with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2331
Is the T790M mutation included in the EGFR PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2314
Is it necessary to perform calibration steps for the use of the MAX dye in duplex RT-PCR experiments on different cyclers?
FAQ ID -2373
Is there also a miRNeasy Plus Universal Kit available?
FAQ ID -2346
I use cultured cells as starting material. Can I also use the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit?
FAQ ID -2342
I would like to order the QuantiFast Probe Assays without master mix. Is this possible?
FAQ ID -2360
My ADAPT report states "Run Invalid" and does not display any sample results. Why is this?
FAQ ID -2306
Is the yield and quality of RNA and DNA purified with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit comparable to yield and quality of nucleic acids purified separately with other methods.
FAQ ID -2349
Is V600E the only mutation that can be detected with the codon 600 assay in the BRAF Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2382
Which Rotor-Gene Q rotor should be used with the EGFR RGQ PCR kit?
FAQ ID -2315
Which kit, the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit, do you recommend for transfection?
FAQ ID -2320
Which probe labels are available for the QuantiFast Probe Assays?
FAQ ID -2361
Which purification kits are recommended for the Pyro kits?
FAQ ID -2380
What should be the concentration of my protein with the NexTal Cubic Phase products?
FAQ ID -2325
What is the maximum plasmid size which I can use with the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit?
FAQ ID -2316
What plug-ins are available for the Pyrosequencing kits?
FAQ ID -2381
Which crystallization solutions are compatible with lipidic cubic phase crystallization?
FAQ ID -2418
Which deparaffinization method can I use with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -2352
What species are QuantiTect Probe Assays offered for?
FAQ ID -2367
Is it also possible to isolate miRNA with the AllPrep DNA/RNA FFPE Kit?
FAQ ID -2348
Can the insertions in Exon 20 be detected with the EGFR Pyro Kit?
FAQ ID -2383
Can the QuantiFast Probe Assay detect short fragmented RNA as well as longer fragments of RNA?
FAQ ID -2364
Can the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit be used for low-copy number plasmids?
FAQ ID -2317
Can I use the RNeasy Plus Universal Mini Kit for all types of tissue?
FAQ ID -2338
Can negative crossing threshold (CT) values be negative when using the KRAS and EGFR PCR kits?
FAQ ID -2300
Can QuantiFast Probe Assays be ordered offline via e-mail or fax?
FAQ ID -2368
For the the QIAprep 96 Plus Miniprep Kit or the QIAGEN Plasmid Plus 96 Miniprep Kit, can plates be partially used?
FAQ ID -2319
For which applications can the RNA isolated with the RNeasy Plus Universal Kit also be used?
FAQ ID -2339
Does the KRAS PCR kit cover the codon 61 mutation?
FAQ ID -2308
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